Deck 5: Managing Industrial Networks with Cisco Networking Technologies (IMINS)

Question 1

Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. Host 3 on Network A is sending data to Host 8 on Network B. Which address is the default gateway of Host 3?

A) the address of the switch interface that is connected to router interface Fa0/0
B) the address of the switch interface that is connected to router interface Fa0/1
C) the address of the host that is connected to Network A
D) the address of the host that is connected to Network B
E) the address of the router interface Fa0/0
F) the address of the router interface Fa0/1

Answer 1

the address of the router interface Fa0/0

Question 2

Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?

A) These commands need to be added to the configuration:C-router(config)# router eigrp 123C- router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B) These commands need to be added to the configuration:C-router(config)# router ospf 1C- router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C) These commands need to be added to the configuration:C-router(config)# router ripC-router(config- router)# network 172.19.0.0
D) No further routing configuration is required.

Answer 2

No further routing configuration is required.

Question 3

What are two benefits of a star network topology? (Choose two.)

A) Disruption of the entire network is not required when adding new machines.
B) Any problem which leaves the network inoperable can be traced to the central hub.
C) This network type requires less cable as compared to linear bus topology.
D) The performance of one of the numerous nodes cannot reflect on the performance of other nodes.
E) The performance of the entire network is directly dependent on the performance of the hub.

Answer 3

Disruption of the entire network is not required when adding new machines.
Any problem which leaves the network inoperable can be traced to the central hub.

Question 4

EtherNet/IP is an Ethernet implementation of which protocol?

A) CIP
B) Industrial Protocol
C) DeviceNet
D) ControlNet

Question 5

A small manufacturing company has a Class C network address on the plant floor and needs to create five subnets, each accommodating 25 endpoints. Which subnet mask needs to be configured?

A) 255.255.240.0
B) 255.255.255.128
C) 255.255.255.192
D) 255.255.255.224
E) 255.255.255.240
F) 255.255.255.248

Question 6

Which of the following correctly pairs the dotted decimal subnet mask with the correct number of binary bits that represent the subnet mask?

A) 255.255.255.192 and /25
B) 255.255.255.248 and /28
C) 255.255.255.224 and /26
D) 255.255.255.248 and /27
E) 255.255.255.240 and /28
F) 255.255.255.240 and /16

Question 7

Why is SSH preferred over Telnet as a method of accessing a network device to alter or view the configuration?

A) Telnet encrypts only the login information, not the entire transmission.
B) SSH requires fewer network resources and no additional configuration.
C) Telnet is more difficult to use and configure than SSH.
D) SSH encrypts the login and session information.

Question 8

Exhibit: Which two statements are correct for a safe wiring installation to the terminal block of the switch or endpoint? (Choose two.)

A) Insert a green ground wire into the terminal block that is marked RT for return.
B) Verify that DC power is live and within 24 VDC voltage range before starting wiring.
C) Verify that the DC power circuit includes an overcurrent protective device that limits the DC current to 5 A.
D) Because this is a low-voltage DC circuit, anyone can install this wiring without electrical training or qualifications.
E) Connect the positive 24 VDC conductor to the V terminal and connect the negative 24 VDC return wire to the RT terminal.
F) A ground wire can optionally be connected to the screw terminal on the front of the switch.

Question 9

Which two ports does EtherNet/IP use to communicate? (Choose two.)

A) TCP 44818
B) UDP 44818
C) TCP 502
D) UDP 502
E) TCP 2222
F) UDP 2222

Question 10

What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol?

A) to prevent routing loops
B) to create a default route
C) to provide multiple gateways for hosts
D) to maintain a loop-free Layer 2 network topology
E) to enhance the functions of SNMP

Question 11

Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. CCNA.com has the industrial network shown in the exhibit. All switches are configured as layer 2 switches and are using VLAN 1 as their management VLAN. Each VLAN 1 interface has been assigned the correct IP address. What is the purpose of assigning a default gateway to SW-C switch?

A) allows connectivity between the VLAN 1 interface on SW-C and other devices in the network.
B) allows connectivity between Host A and other devices in the network.
C) allows connectivity between Host B and other devices in the network.
D) allows the switch to pass traffic between Host A and Host B

Question 12

Given a ring topology, which loop prevention mechanism provides the fastest reconvergence time after a link failure?

A) Rapid Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol
B) Resilient Ethernet Protocol
C) Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
D) Spanning Tree Protocol

Question 13

Which option allows an EtherNet/IP I/O device to be safely installed where it is subject to water immersion?

A) The device is rated IP20 and the power wiring is installed securely to the terminal block.
B) The device is rated IP67 and a power cordset is used.
C) The device is rated IP67 and immersed to 10 m.
D) The device is rated IP20 and immersed to 10 m.

Question 14

An administrator has connected devices to an industrial switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. What must be done to accomplish this?

A) Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.
B) Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.
C) Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration.
D) Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.

Question 15

What are the two most relevant factors in determining the class of administration that is required to maintain the telecommunications infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A) the size of the infrastructure
B) the complexity of the infrastructure
C) the age of the infrastructure
D) the industry that the infrastructure supports
E) the physical environment of the infrastructure

Question 16

Which prompt is used to configure parameters for the Ethernet ports of an industrial switch?

A) Switch(config-if)#
B) Switch(config-if-ind)#
C) Switch(config-line)#
D) Switch(config-ind)#
E) Switch(config-vlan)#

Question 17

Which three of the following components must be elected before the Spanning Tree Protocol can converge in a switched LAN? (Choose three.)

A) designated ports
B) duplex operating mode
C) fast mode ports
D) root bridge
E) root ports
F) BDPU priority

Question 18

Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. What are three traffic and interconnection requirements for the devices in the exhibit? (Choose three.)

A) The EtherNet/IP drive connections are in a high-voltage area and need protection from electromagnetic noise, so shielded cable that is rated for 600 V is advised.
B) EtherNet/IP devices such as the controller, drive, VoIP phone, and IP camera should be in the same VLAN.
C) CIP traffic has the highest bandwidth requirement so it needs the highest QoS setting.
D) EtherNet/IP drive traffic has high sensitivity to random drops, latency, and jitter.
E) Real-time motion control and VoIP traffic can share the same VLAN with the proper QoS setting.
F) IEEE1588 and PTP are important for ensuring real-time synchronization.

Question 19

According to the Purdue Reference Model, at which layer would you perform manufacturing operations and control?

A) Level 0
B) Level 1
C) Level 2
D) Level 3
E) Level 4

Question 20

Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. Which port should a PLC with IP address 192.168.3.65 be plugged into in order to communicate to the rest of the network?

A) FastEthernet1/1
B) FastEthernet1/2
C) FastEthernet1/3
D) FastEthernet1/4
E) FastEthernet1/5

Question 21

With what are APC connectors used?

A) Category 6a cables that need tight radius bends
B) copper network cables in corrosive environments
C) single-mode fiber-optic cables to reduce return loss
D) high-density copper patch panels

Question 22

Which characteristic causes multimode fiber-optic cable to differ from single mode?

A) by allowing multiple network services in the same cable
B) shorter maximum network segment length for a given bandwidth
C) a wider variety of available connector types
D) use outdoors as well as indoors

Question 23

With a Cisco IE 2000 switch, what does a port status LED indicate when it is solid amber?

A) The port is sending or receiving data.
B) A link is present.
C) No link is present.
D) There is a link fault.
E) The port is not forwarding.

Question 24

The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two).

A) SNMP
B) HTTP
C) Telnet
D) RMON
E) SSH

Question 25

You are troubleshooting a connectivity problem and want to isolate the problem. You suspect that a router on the route to an unreachable network is at fault. Which command would you issue to see where the packets stop?

A) router#ping
B) router#tracert
C) router#show ip route
D) router#show cdp neighbors
E) router#traceroute

Question 26

A network administrator has subnetted the 172.16.0.0 network using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. A duplicate IP address of 172.16.2.120 has accidentally been configured on a workstation in the network. The technician on the plant floor must assign this workstation a new IP address within that same subnetwork. Which address should be assigned to the workstation?

A) 172.16.1.80
B) 172.16.2.80
C) 172.16.1.64
D) 172.16.2.64
E) 172.16.2.127
F) 172.16.2.128

Question 27

You are a called upon to troubleshoot connectivity problems to a network device on a production floor. You have used ping and traceroute to verify that you cannot connect to the device from the management network. The network is 209.165.202.128/27 and the device has been given the IP address 209.165.202.158 and mask 255.255.255.224. You have verified that you can reach the device with your computer connected to the same switch as the device. What could be the cause of this problem?

A) The device is set to the wrong subnet mask.
B) The device is set to the wrong IP address.
C) The device has no IP default gateway.
D) The device is connected to a switchport in the wrong VLAN.

Question 28

Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. An industrial ruggedized network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?

A) a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B) a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C) a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D) a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E) a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface

Question 29

For which three issues should fiber-optic network segments be tested? (Choose three.)

A) attenuation
B) near-end crosstalk
C) length
D) polarity
E) jitter
F) tensile stress

Question 30

An Ethernet cable is attached to a PC NIC and then attached to a switch port. The PC power is turned on and the switch port link LED turns green. The link light indicates what two conditions? (Choose two.)

A) Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B) The PC has received a DHCP address.
C) Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.
D) If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100 Mb/s.
E) The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
F) The switch port is functioning as a half-duplex connection.

Question 31

With a Cisco IE 2000 switch, what does a port status LED indicate when it is alternating green and amber?

A) The port is sending or receiving data.
B) A link is present.
C) No link is present.
D) There is a link fault.
E) The port is not forwarding.

Question 32

What are two symptoms of duplex mismatch? (Choose two.)

A) Ping does not return from one direction versus the other direction.
B) Communication is slow and locks up.
C) Speed is seen equally slow in both directions.
D) The half-duplex side sees frame sequence errors or runt frames.
E) The full-duplex side sees CRC errors.

Question 33

What are two recommended tools or commands that allow you to troubleshoot connectivity between two devices in different IP networks? (Choose two.)

A) show interface status
B) show spanning-tree
C) ping
D) show interfaces gigabitEthernet x/y switchport
E) traceroute
F) show interface

Question 34

Which option best describes a mechanical, ingress, climatic, chemical and electromagnetic environment that is classified as M3 I3 C3 E3?

A) the highest quality
B) office environment
C) severe
D) serviced by multiple cable segments

Question 35

What should be done with unused conductors in copper unshielded or shielded twisted-pair network cables?

A) terminate in their characteristic impedance
B) trim back and properly insulate
C) connect to protective earth
D) splice to a used conductor

Question 36

With a Cisco IE 2000 switch, what does a port status LED indicate when it is solid green?

A) The port is sending or receiving data.
B) A link is present.
C) No link is present.
D) There is a link fault.
E) The port is not forwarding.