Deck 17: Nutrition Care and Assessment

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Question
Specific instructions regarding dietary management for a patient are known as "____."

A) clinical pathways
B) nutrition care plans
C) diet orders
D) nutrition screenings
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Question
Clinical judgments about actual or potential health problems that provide the basis for selecting appropriate nursing interventions are called "____."

A) potential diagnoses
B) nursing diagnoses
C) treatment objectives
D) nursing goals
Question
Nutrition assessment and diagnosis followed by provision of nutrition care by a registered dietitian is termed "____."

A) medical nutrition therapy
B) the nutrition care process
C) a nutrition screening
D) a medical history
Question
Which statement is true regarding malnutrition among hospitalized patients?

A) Although common among chronic care patients, malnutrition is rare among acute care patients.
B) Malnutrition among hospitalized patients is extremely rare and an indication of seriously flawed care.
C) Only patients who are terminally ill and expected to die within months are at risk of malnutrition.
D) Even acutely ill patients who are not malnourished during admission may become malnourished subsequently.
Question
The physician asks the staff to administer tube feedings. Who is most often responsible for doing this?

A) the nurse
B) the dietitian
C) the dietetic technician
D) the social worker
Question
General weakness and impaired mobility in a patient represents which type of data in the nutrition screening process?

A) admission data
B) anthropometric data
C) functional assessment data
D) laboratory test results
Question
Which health care professional is expected to have extensive knowledge about foods, nutrition, and health?

A) physician
B) registered dietitian
C) nurse
D) social worker
Question
Changes in hydration, as well as diarrhea due to illness, affect nutrition status primarily by ____.

A) reducing nutrient and food intake
B) altering metabolism and excretion
C) impairing digestion and absorption
D) impairing cognition
Question
What is the screening tool that is used in clinical facilities to detect the risk of malnutrition in adults over the age of 65?

A) Subjective Global Assessment
B) Patient Education Materials Assessment Tool
C) Continuity Assessment and Record Evaluation
D) Mini Nutritional Assessment
Question
An assessment procedure for identifying clients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition is referred to as a "____."

A) health questionnaire
B) health history
C) diet order
D) nutrition screening
Question
Which statement most accurately describes nutrition screening?

A) Screenings should be conducted within 24 hours of patient's admission.
B) Screening questions are the same from facility to facility.
C) Assessments must be conducted by physicians.
D) Laboratory tests are not included as part of the screening process.
Question
A nutrition care plan is ____.

A) the client's diet prescription ordered by the nurse
B) the dietitian's strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
C) the nurse's documentation of how well the client is eating
D) nutritional formulas showing minimum daily requirements
Question
In a health care facility, who holds the ultimate responsibility for ensuring that all the patient's nutritional needs are met?

A) clinical dietitians
B) physicians
C) nurses
D) pharmacists
Question
A new patient is admitted to the rehabilitation unit. Who is most likely to visit the patient to compile a list of his or her food preferences?

A) nurse
B) physician
C) dietitian
D) dietetic technician
Question
Maisie Green is a frail, elderly widow who lives in a nursing home and has been confined to her bed for 4 months. What is most likely to increase her metabolic stress and her energy and protein needs?

A) weakened immunity
B) medications causing GI discomfort
C) poor emotional health
D) pressure sores
Question
A patient who has had surgery for colostomy placement has been put on bowel rest and has only intravenous fluids for nutrition. In what way would these treatments affect this patient's nutrition status?

A) reduce food intake
B) impair digestion
C) alter nutrient excretion
D) Impair absorption
Question
Coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners are called "____."

A) critical pathways
B) clinical integrative plans
C) diagnosis-related groups
D) treatment plans
Question
Impaired nutrient digestion and absorption that affects nutritional status would most likely be caused by ____.

A) insufficient excretion of digestive enzymes
B) anorexia due to illness
C) prolonged immobilization
D) use of diuretics
Question
Depending on the patient population, estimates indicate that approximately ____ percent of hospitalized patients are malnourished.

A) 20 to 50
B) 35 to 70
C) 45 to 80
D) 50 to 90
Question
A patient's height, weight, and body mass index represent which type of data in the nutrition screening process?

A) admission data
B) anthropometric data
C) functional assessment data
D) laboratory test results
Question
An extensive and accurate log of foods eaten over a period of several consecutive days or weeks is called "____."

A) a food-frequency checklist
B) a food record
C) direct observation
D) 24-hour recall
Question
Danny is undergoing a health assessment. What should the clinician do that would most likely result in an accurate assessment of Danny's weight?

A) Ask Danny how much he weighs.
B) Use a scale that is calibrated and checked for accuracy.
C) Measure Danny's weight three times and take an average of the measurements.
D) Use a bathroom scale to weigh Danny.
Question
What is a limitation when food intake information is collected using the 24-hour dietary recall method?

A) The process is time consuming.
B) Clients often keep poor records.
C) The method excludes recording of beverages.
D) A 24-hour recall relies on an individual's memory.
Question
A nutritional assessment involves ____.

A) collecting and analyzing health-related data to identify nutrition problems
B) implementing a nutrition care plan
C) identifying existing and potential psychological problems
D) obtaining approval from insurance providers
Question
What is a social factor that can affect food intake and therefore nutrition status?

A) methamphetamine use
B) religious beliefs
C) mental illness
D) prescription medications
Question
The neuropsychological problems assessed in the Mini Nutritional Assessment screening tool include ____.

A) dementia
B) distorted body image perception
C) anxiety
D) schizophrenia
Question
An individual with a body mass index of ____ would receive one point for BMI in the Mini Nutritional Assessment screening tool.

A) less than 19
B) 19 to less than 21
C) 21 to less than 23
D) 23 or greater
Question
If a client is asked to recount everything eaten in a typical day, the assessor is using ____ to collect food intake data.

A) a food record
B) a calorie count
C) a 24-hour recall
D) direct observation
Question
Why might food frequency questionnaires be less accurate than 24-hour recalls for obtaining food intake data?

A) The process examines long-term food intake
B) Dietary supplements can't be included.
C) They typically list only common foods.
D) It may be difficult to estimate average portion sizes of foods eaten less frequently.
Question
Head circumference is used to ____.

A) monitor brain growth
B) help detect overnutrition
C) evaluate muscle size
D) calculate infant body mass index
Question
A registered dietitian performs a Subjective Global Assessment on a newly admitted hospital patient. The dietitian gives several "C" ratings for the assessment variables related to the patient's medical history and physical examination. This most likely means that the patient is ____.

A) obese and needs to lose weight
B) well nourished
C) at risk of malnutrition
D) severely malnourished
Question
What is an example of food and nutrition history information that would be included as part of the nutrition assessment?

A) dietary supplements usage
B) high educational level
C) recent weight changes
D) low socioeconomic status
Question
Growth charts with BMI-for-age percentiles can be used to assess risk of underweight using the ____ percentile as the cutoff to identify children who may be malnourished.

A) 5th
B) 10th
C) 15th
D) 20th
Question
Lee is a 78-year-old woman with mild loss of muscle mass, loss of about 7% of body weight over the past 6 months, and decreased food intake due to anorexia. Using the Subjective Global Assessment screening tool, she is most likely to be classified in which category?

A) well nourished
B) mild malnutrition
C) moderate malnutrition
D) severe malnutrition
Question
A 24-hour recall is used to collect food intake data for one day. The client states that she didn't eat breakfast. She had a soft drink and an apple for lunch, and for dinner she had a slice of pizza. What is the best question the health care professional could ask next regarding this finding?

A) "Is this typically a day's food intake?"
B) "What was on the slice of pizza?"
C) "What kinds of foods do you like to eat?"
D) "Are you on a busy schedule?"
Question
Which calculation is more effective in evaluating weight loss in an overweight person?

A) usual body weight
B) ideal body weight
C) %Usual Body Weight
D) %Ideal Body Weight
Question
An example of a behavioral-environmental diagnosis given following a nutrition assessment might be ____.

A) altered blood potassium levels
B) inadequate energy intake
C) unintended weight gain
D) disordered eating pattern
Question
What technique is most effective when using the 24-hour recall method to obtain food intake data?

A) multiple-pass method
B) direct observation
C) use of a checklist
D) free recall
Question
What best describes a food record?

A) a written survey of food consumed in the past year
B) a written account of food consumed during several consecutive days
C) direct observation of how much a person eats
D) an interview discussing food intake in the last day
Question
In children, a sharp drop in a previously steady growth pattern suggests ____.

A) malnutrition
B) obesity
C) a growth spurt
D) a medical error
Question
Elevated levels of ____ may indicate liver disease.

A) albumin
B) creatine kinase
C) mean corpuscular volume
D) alanine aminotransferase
Question
Mrs. Falwell is 5 ft 4 in. and weighs 110 lb. During the interview, she mentions she has lost "a lot of weight" over the past 5 months. She usually weighs 135 lbs. What is her %UBW?

A) 25
B) 81
C) 120
D) 123
Question
Which protein is the most abundant serum protein?

A) transferrin
B) albumin
C) transthyretin
D) retinol-binding protein
Question
What %Ideal Body Weight indicates a risk of moderate malnutrition?

A) 90 to 100
B) 85 to 90
C) 80 to 85
D) 70 to 79
Question
Fluid retention typically results in ____.

A) deceptively low lab values
B) deceptively high lab values
C) unintentional weight loss
D) unintentional muscle loss
Question
A BMI-for-age above the ____ percentile indicates that the child may be overweight.

A) 25th
B) 50th
C) 75th
D) 85th
Question
Where do clinical signs of malnutrition appear most rapidly?

A) hair
B) eyes
C) urinary tract
D) cardiovascular system
Question
Which nutrition assessment marker is routinely monitored in hospital patients, but is not a sensitive indicator of nutrition status?

A) serum albumin
B) body mass index
C) mean corpuscular volume
D) plasma creatinine
Question
Which serum protein rises rapidly in response to inflammation or infection associated with critical illness?

A) transferrin
B) prealbumin
C) albumin
D) C-reactive protein
Question
White blood cells that have the ability to engulf and destroy pathogens are known as "____."

A) phagocytes
B) immunoglobulins
C) lymphocytes
D) lysozymes
Question
After blood is centrifuged to remove cells, the fluid that remains is called "____."

A) plasma
B) serum
C) electrolytes
D) platelets
Question
The half-life of albumin is approximately ____.

A) 12 hours
B) 2 to 3 days
C) 8 to 10 days
D) 14 to 20 days
Question
Which of the following biochemical tests has different ranges of normal values for males and females?

A) hematocrit
B) mean corpuscular volume
C) mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
D) white blood cell (WBC) count
Question
What clinical effects of protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) would most likely be seen in an individual's hair?

A) hair falling out easily
B) thick hair
C) hair firm in scalp
D) shiny hair
Question
An individual who is at risk of moderate malnutrition has a %Usual Body Weight of ____.

A)
B) 70 to 75
C) 75 to 84
D) 85 to 90
Question
Immunity against a specific antigen is called "____ immunity."

A) adaptive
B) innate
C) systemic
D) complementary
Question
Which test is primarily used for monitoring kidney function?

A) glycated hemoglobin
B) C-reactive protein
C) blood urea nitrogen
D) alanine aminotransferase
Question
_______ are large globular proteins produced by B cells that function as antibodies.

A) Antigens
B) Immunoglobulins
C) Antibodies
D) Lysozymes
Question
An individual who is at risk of mild malnutrition has a %Usual Body Weight of ____.

A)
B) 75 to 84
C) 85 to 95
D) >95
Question
Physical signs of fluid retention include ____.

A) dark-colored urine
B) reduced skin tension
C) abdominal distention
D) thirst
Question
Match between columns
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
diet order
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
food record
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
food-frequency questionnaire
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
nutrition care plans
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
food and nutrition history
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
calorie counts
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
edema
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
nutrition screening
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
nutrition care process
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
Subjective Global Assessment
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
PES statement
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
critical pathways
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
200 to 360 mg/dL
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
20 to 40 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
diet order
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
food record
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
food-frequency questionnaire
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
nutrition care plans
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
food and nutrition history
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
calorie counts
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
edema
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
nutrition screening
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
nutrition care process
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
Subjective Global Assessment
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
PES statement
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
critical pathways
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
200 to 360 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
20 to 40 mg/dL
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
diet order
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
food record
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
food-frequency questionnaire
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
nutrition care plans
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
food and nutrition history
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
calorie counts
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
edema
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
nutrition screening
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
nutrition care process
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
Subjective Global Assessment
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
PES statement
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
critical pathways
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
200 to 360 mg/dL
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
20 to 40 mg/dL
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
diet order
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
food record
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
food-frequency questionnaire
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
nutrition care plans
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
food and nutrition history
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
calorie counts
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
edema
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
nutrition screening
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
nutrition care process
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
Subjective Global Assessment
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
PES statement
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
critical pathways
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
200 to 360 mg/dL
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
20 to 40 mg/dL
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
diet order
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
food record
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
food-frequency questionnaire
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
nutrition care plans
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
food and nutrition history
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
calorie counts
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
edema
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
nutrition screening
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
nutrition care process
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
Subjective Global Assessment
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
PES statement
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
critical pathways
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
200 to 360 mg/dL
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
20 to 40 mg/dL
specific instructions about dietary management
diet order
specific instructions about dietary management
food record
specific instructions about dietary management
food-frequency questionnaire
specific instructions about dietary management
nutrition care plans
specific instructions about dietary management
food and nutrition history
specific instructions about dietary management
calorie counts
specific instructions about dietary management
edema
specific instructions about dietary management
nutrition screening
specific instructions about dietary management
nutrition care process
specific instructions about dietary management
Subjective Global Assessment
specific instructions about dietary management
PES statement
specific instructions about dietary management
critical pathways
specific instructions about dietary management
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
specific instructions about dietary management
200 to 360 mg/dL
specific instructions about dietary management
20 to 40 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
diet order
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
food record
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
food-frequency questionnaire
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
nutrition care plans
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
food and nutrition history
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
calorie counts
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
edema
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
nutrition screening
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
nutrition care process
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
Subjective Global Assessment
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
PES statement
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
critical pathways
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
200 to 360 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
20 to 40 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
diet order
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
food record
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
food-frequency questionnaire
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
nutrition care plans
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
food and nutrition history
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
calorie counts
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
edema
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
nutrition screening
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
nutrition care process
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
Subjective Global Assessment
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
PES statement
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
critical pathways
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
200 to 360 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
20 to 40 mg/dL
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
diet order
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
food record
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
food-frequency questionnaire
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
nutrition care plans
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
food and nutrition history
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
calorie counts
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
edema
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
nutrition screening
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
nutrition care process
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
Subjective Global Assessment
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
PES statement
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
critical pathways
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
200 to 360 mg/dL
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
20 to 40 mg/dL
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
diet order
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
food record
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
food-frequency questionnaire
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
nutrition care plans
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
food and nutrition history
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
calorie counts
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
edema
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
nutrition screening
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
nutrition care process
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
Subjective Global Assessment
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
PES statement
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
critical pathways
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
200 to 360 mg/dL
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
20 to 40 mg/dL
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
diet order
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
food record
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
food-frequency questionnaire
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
nutrition care plans
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
food and nutrition history
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
calorie counts
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
edema
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
nutrition screening
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
nutrition care process
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
Subjective Global Assessment
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
PES statement
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
critical pathways
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
200 to 360 mg/dL
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
20 to 40 mg/dL
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
diet order
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
food record
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
food-frequency questionnaire
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
nutrition care plans
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
food and nutrition history
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
calorie counts
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
edema
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
nutrition screening
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
nutrition care process
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
Subjective Global Assessment
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
PES statement
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
critical pathways
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
200 to 360 mg/dL
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
20 to 40 mg/dL
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
diet order
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
food record
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
food-frequency questionnaire
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
nutrition care plans
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
food and nutrition history
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
calorie counts
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
edema
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
nutrition screening
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
nutrition care process
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
Subjective Global Assessment
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
PES statement
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
critical pathways
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
200 to 360 mg/dL
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
20 to 40 mg/dL
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
diet order
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
food record
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
food-frequency questionnaire
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
nutrition care plans
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
food and nutrition history
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
calorie counts
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
edema
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
nutrition screening
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
nutrition care process
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
Subjective Global Assessment
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
PES statement
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
critical pathways
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
200 to 360 mg/dL
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
20 to 40 mg/dL
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
diet order
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
food record
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
food-frequency questionnaire
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
nutrition care plans
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
food and nutrition history
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
calorie counts
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
edema
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
nutrition screening
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
nutrition care process
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
Subjective Global Assessment
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
PES statement
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
critical pathways
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
200 to 360 mg/dL
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
20 to 40 mg/dL
Question
List two advantages and two disadvantages for each of the four methods used for obtaining food intake data.
Question
Explain why serum proteins are used as part of biochemical assessment measurements and list three examples.
Question
Describe the differences between fluid retention and dehydration.
Question
A nonspecific response to illness or injury is called "____. "

A) an allergy
B) cell-mediated immunity
C) humoral immunity
D) inflammation
Question
Describe clinical signs of malnutrition in an individual's eyes, lips, skin, and nails.
Question
Discuss the different types of historical data collected for a nutrition assessment.
Question
Discuss the undesirable impact of immune responses on nutrition status.
Question
Describe the use of anthropometric measurements in infants and children.
Question
Which tissue is a type of lymphoid tissue?

A) spleen
B) lungs
C) appendix
D) brain
Question
Discuss the role of nurses on the nutrition care team and list five nutrition-related nursing diagnoses.
Question
Describe how malnutrition impacts the body's immune response.
Question
Describe the effects of illness on nutrition status and list two examples of conditions associated with malnutrition.
Question
An example of an antigen is a(an) ____.

A) monocyte
B) NK cell
C) virus
D) T cell
Question
A foreign antigen has entered the body and has elicited the immune response. A helper T cell binds to an antigen fragment on an antigen-presenting cell. What happens next?

A) B cells produce more antibodies.
B) A cytotoxic T cell destroys the antigen.
C) Free antibodies attach to the antigens.
D) A macrophage engulfs the target antigen.
Question
Which type of cell releases proteins that damage parasites?

A) basophils
B) monocytes
C) eosinophils
D) neutrophils
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Deck 17: Nutrition Care and Assessment
1
Specific instructions regarding dietary management for a patient are known as "____."

A) clinical pathways
B) nutrition care plans
C) diet orders
D) nutrition screenings
C
2
Clinical judgments about actual or potential health problems that provide the basis for selecting appropriate nursing interventions are called "____."

A) potential diagnoses
B) nursing diagnoses
C) treatment objectives
D) nursing goals
B
3
Nutrition assessment and diagnosis followed by provision of nutrition care by a registered dietitian is termed "____."

A) medical nutrition therapy
B) the nutrition care process
C) a nutrition screening
D) a medical history
A
4
Which statement is true regarding malnutrition among hospitalized patients?

A) Although common among chronic care patients, malnutrition is rare among acute care patients.
B) Malnutrition among hospitalized patients is extremely rare and an indication of seriously flawed care.
C) Only patients who are terminally ill and expected to die within months are at risk of malnutrition.
D) Even acutely ill patients who are not malnourished during admission may become malnourished subsequently.
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5
The physician asks the staff to administer tube feedings. Who is most often responsible for doing this?

A) the nurse
B) the dietitian
C) the dietetic technician
D) the social worker
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6
General weakness and impaired mobility in a patient represents which type of data in the nutrition screening process?

A) admission data
B) anthropometric data
C) functional assessment data
D) laboratory test results
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7
Which health care professional is expected to have extensive knowledge about foods, nutrition, and health?

A) physician
B) registered dietitian
C) nurse
D) social worker
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8
Changes in hydration, as well as diarrhea due to illness, affect nutrition status primarily by ____.

A) reducing nutrient and food intake
B) altering metabolism and excretion
C) impairing digestion and absorption
D) impairing cognition
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9
What is the screening tool that is used in clinical facilities to detect the risk of malnutrition in adults over the age of 65?

A) Subjective Global Assessment
B) Patient Education Materials Assessment Tool
C) Continuity Assessment and Record Evaluation
D) Mini Nutritional Assessment
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10
An assessment procedure for identifying clients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition is referred to as a "____."

A) health questionnaire
B) health history
C) diet order
D) nutrition screening
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11
Which statement most accurately describes nutrition screening?

A) Screenings should be conducted within 24 hours of patient's admission.
B) Screening questions are the same from facility to facility.
C) Assessments must be conducted by physicians.
D) Laboratory tests are not included as part of the screening process.
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12
A nutrition care plan is ____.

A) the client's diet prescription ordered by the nurse
B) the dietitian's strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
C) the nurse's documentation of how well the client is eating
D) nutritional formulas showing minimum daily requirements
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13
In a health care facility, who holds the ultimate responsibility for ensuring that all the patient's nutritional needs are met?

A) clinical dietitians
B) physicians
C) nurses
D) pharmacists
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14
A new patient is admitted to the rehabilitation unit. Who is most likely to visit the patient to compile a list of his or her food preferences?

A) nurse
B) physician
C) dietitian
D) dietetic technician
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15
Maisie Green is a frail, elderly widow who lives in a nursing home and has been confined to her bed for 4 months. What is most likely to increase her metabolic stress and her energy and protein needs?

A) weakened immunity
B) medications causing GI discomfort
C) poor emotional health
D) pressure sores
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16
A patient who has had surgery for colostomy placement has been put on bowel rest and has only intravenous fluids for nutrition. In what way would these treatments affect this patient's nutrition status?

A) reduce food intake
B) impair digestion
C) alter nutrient excretion
D) Impair absorption
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17
Coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners are called "____."

A) critical pathways
B) clinical integrative plans
C) diagnosis-related groups
D) treatment plans
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18
Impaired nutrient digestion and absorption that affects nutritional status would most likely be caused by ____.

A) insufficient excretion of digestive enzymes
B) anorexia due to illness
C) prolonged immobilization
D) use of diuretics
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19
Depending on the patient population, estimates indicate that approximately ____ percent of hospitalized patients are malnourished.

A) 20 to 50
B) 35 to 70
C) 45 to 80
D) 50 to 90
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20
A patient's height, weight, and body mass index represent which type of data in the nutrition screening process?

A) admission data
B) anthropometric data
C) functional assessment data
D) laboratory test results
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21
An extensive and accurate log of foods eaten over a period of several consecutive days or weeks is called "____."

A) a food-frequency checklist
B) a food record
C) direct observation
D) 24-hour recall
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22
Danny is undergoing a health assessment. What should the clinician do that would most likely result in an accurate assessment of Danny's weight?

A) Ask Danny how much he weighs.
B) Use a scale that is calibrated and checked for accuracy.
C) Measure Danny's weight three times and take an average of the measurements.
D) Use a bathroom scale to weigh Danny.
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23
What is a limitation when food intake information is collected using the 24-hour dietary recall method?

A) The process is time consuming.
B) Clients often keep poor records.
C) The method excludes recording of beverages.
D) A 24-hour recall relies on an individual's memory.
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24
A nutritional assessment involves ____.

A) collecting and analyzing health-related data to identify nutrition problems
B) implementing a nutrition care plan
C) identifying existing and potential psychological problems
D) obtaining approval from insurance providers
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25
What is a social factor that can affect food intake and therefore nutrition status?

A) methamphetamine use
B) religious beliefs
C) mental illness
D) prescription medications
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26
The neuropsychological problems assessed in the Mini Nutritional Assessment screening tool include ____.

A) dementia
B) distorted body image perception
C) anxiety
D) schizophrenia
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27
An individual with a body mass index of ____ would receive one point for BMI in the Mini Nutritional Assessment screening tool.

A) less than 19
B) 19 to less than 21
C) 21 to less than 23
D) 23 or greater
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28
If a client is asked to recount everything eaten in a typical day, the assessor is using ____ to collect food intake data.

A) a food record
B) a calorie count
C) a 24-hour recall
D) direct observation
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29
Why might food frequency questionnaires be less accurate than 24-hour recalls for obtaining food intake data?

A) The process examines long-term food intake
B) Dietary supplements can't be included.
C) They typically list only common foods.
D) It may be difficult to estimate average portion sizes of foods eaten less frequently.
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30
Head circumference is used to ____.

A) monitor brain growth
B) help detect overnutrition
C) evaluate muscle size
D) calculate infant body mass index
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31
A registered dietitian performs a Subjective Global Assessment on a newly admitted hospital patient. The dietitian gives several "C" ratings for the assessment variables related to the patient's medical history and physical examination. This most likely means that the patient is ____.

A) obese and needs to lose weight
B) well nourished
C) at risk of malnutrition
D) severely malnourished
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32
What is an example of food and nutrition history information that would be included as part of the nutrition assessment?

A) dietary supplements usage
B) high educational level
C) recent weight changes
D) low socioeconomic status
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33
Growth charts with BMI-for-age percentiles can be used to assess risk of underweight using the ____ percentile as the cutoff to identify children who may be malnourished.

A) 5th
B) 10th
C) 15th
D) 20th
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34
Lee is a 78-year-old woman with mild loss of muscle mass, loss of about 7% of body weight over the past 6 months, and decreased food intake due to anorexia. Using the Subjective Global Assessment screening tool, she is most likely to be classified in which category?

A) well nourished
B) mild malnutrition
C) moderate malnutrition
D) severe malnutrition
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35
A 24-hour recall is used to collect food intake data for one day. The client states that she didn't eat breakfast. She had a soft drink and an apple for lunch, and for dinner she had a slice of pizza. What is the best question the health care professional could ask next regarding this finding?

A) "Is this typically a day's food intake?"
B) "What was on the slice of pizza?"
C) "What kinds of foods do you like to eat?"
D) "Are you on a busy schedule?"
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36
Which calculation is more effective in evaluating weight loss in an overweight person?

A) usual body weight
B) ideal body weight
C) %Usual Body Weight
D) %Ideal Body Weight
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37
An example of a behavioral-environmental diagnosis given following a nutrition assessment might be ____.

A) altered blood potassium levels
B) inadequate energy intake
C) unintended weight gain
D) disordered eating pattern
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38
What technique is most effective when using the 24-hour recall method to obtain food intake data?

A) multiple-pass method
B) direct observation
C) use of a checklist
D) free recall
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39
What best describes a food record?

A) a written survey of food consumed in the past year
B) a written account of food consumed during several consecutive days
C) direct observation of how much a person eats
D) an interview discussing food intake in the last day
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40
In children, a sharp drop in a previously steady growth pattern suggests ____.

A) malnutrition
B) obesity
C) a growth spurt
D) a medical error
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41
Elevated levels of ____ may indicate liver disease.

A) albumin
B) creatine kinase
C) mean corpuscular volume
D) alanine aminotransferase
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42
Mrs. Falwell is 5 ft 4 in. and weighs 110 lb. During the interview, she mentions she has lost "a lot of weight" over the past 5 months. She usually weighs 135 lbs. What is her %UBW?

A) 25
B) 81
C) 120
D) 123
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43
Which protein is the most abundant serum protein?

A) transferrin
B) albumin
C) transthyretin
D) retinol-binding protein
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44
What %Ideal Body Weight indicates a risk of moderate malnutrition?

A) 90 to 100
B) 85 to 90
C) 80 to 85
D) 70 to 79
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45
Fluid retention typically results in ____.

A) deceptively low lab values
B) deceptively high lab values
C) unintentional weight loss
D) unintentional muscle loss
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46
A BMI-for-age above the ____ percentile indicates that the child may be overweight.

A) 25th
B) 50th
C) 75th
D) 85th
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47
Where do clinical signs of malnutrition appear most rapidly?

A) hair
B) eyes
C) urinary tract
D) cardiovascular system
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48
Which nutrition assessment marker is routinely monitored in hospital patients, but is not a sensitive indicator of nutrition status?

A) serum albumin
B) body mass index
C) mean corpuscular volume
D) plasma creatinine
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49
Which serum protein rises rapidly in response to inflammation or infection associated with critical illness?

A) transferrin
B) prealbumin
C) albumin
D) C-reactive protein
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50
White blood cells that have the ability to engulf and destroy pathogens are known as "____."

A) phagocytes
B) immunoglobulins
C) lymphocytes
D) lysozymes
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51
After blood is centrifuged to remove cells, the fluid that remains is called "____."

A) plasma
B) serum
C) electrolytes
D) platelets
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52
The half-life of albumin is approximately ____.

A) 12 hours
B) 2 to 3 days
C) 8 to 10 days
D) 14 to 20 days
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53
Which of the following biochemical tests has different ranges of normal values for males and females?

A) hematocrit
B) mean corpuscular volume
C) mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
D) white blood cell (WBC) count
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54
What clinical effects of protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) would most likely be seen in an individual's hair?

A) hair falling out easily
B) thick hair
C) hair firm in scalp
D) shiny hair
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55
An individual who is at risk of moderate malnutrition has a %Usual Body Weight of ____.

A)
B) 70 to 75
C) 75 to 84
D) 85 to 90
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56
Immunity against a specific antigen is called "____ immunity."

A) adaptive
B) innate
C) systemic
D) complementary
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57
Which test is primarily used for monitoring kidney function?

A) glycated hemoglobin
B) C-reactive protein
C) blood urea nitrogen
D) alanine aminotransferase
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58
_______ are large globular proteins produced by B cells that function as antibodies.

A) Antigens
B) Immunoglobulins
C) Antibodies
D) Lysozymes
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59
An individual who is at risk of mild malnutrition has a %Usual Body Weight of ____.

A)
B) 75 to 84
C) 85 to 95
D) >95
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60
Physical signs of fluid retention include ____.

A) dark-colored urine
B) reduced skin tension
C) abdominal distention
D) thirst
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61
Match between columns
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
diet order
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
food record
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
food-frequency questionnaire
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
nutrition care plans
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
food and nutrition history
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
calorie counts
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
edema
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
nutrition screening
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
nutrition care process
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
Subjective Global Assessment
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
PES statement
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
critical pathways
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
200 to 360 mg/dL
the abnormal retention of fluid in body tissues
20 to 40 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
diet order
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
food record
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
food-frequency questionnaire
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
nutrition care plans
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
food and nutrition history
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
calorie counts
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
edema
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
nutrition screening
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
nutrition care process
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
Subjective Global Assessment
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
PES statement
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
critical pathways
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
200 to 360 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for transferrin in an individual
20 to 40 mg/dL
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
diet order
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
food record
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
food-frequency questionnaire
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
nutrition care plans
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
food and nutrition history
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
calorie counts
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
edema
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
nutrition screening
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
nutrition care process
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
Subjective Global Assessment
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
PES statement
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
critical pathways
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
200 to 360 mg/dL
written survey of foods regularly consumed during a specific period of time
20 to 40 mg/dL
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
diet order
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
food record
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
food-frequency questionnaire
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
nutrition care plans
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
food and nutrition history
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
calorie counts
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
edema
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
nutrition screening
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
nutrition care process
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
Subjective Global Assessment
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
PES statement
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
critical pathways
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
200 to 360 mg/dL
statement that describes a nutrition problem, its etiology or cause, and the signs/symptoms
20 to 40 mg/dL
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
diet order
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
food record
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
food-frequency questionnaire
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
nutrition care plans
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
food and nutrition history
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
calorie counts
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
edema
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
nutrition screening
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
nutrition care process
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
Subjective Global Assessment
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
PES statement
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
critical pathways
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
200 to 360 mg/dL
strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
20 to 40 mg/dL
specific instructions about dietary management
diet order
specific instructions about dietary management
food record
specific instructions about dietary management
food-frequency questionnaire
specific instructions about dietary management
nutrition care plans
specific instructions about dietary management
food and nutrition history
specific instructions about dietary management
calorie counts
specific instructions about dietary management
edema
specific instructions about dietary management
nutrition screening
specific instructions about dietary management
nutrition care process
specific instructions about dietary management
Subjective Global Assessment
specific instructions about dietary management
PES statement
specific instructions about dietary management
critical pathways
specific instructions about dietary management
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
specific instructions about dietary management
200 to 360 mg/dL
specific instructions about dietary management
20 to 40 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
diet order
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
food record
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
food-frequency questionnaire
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
nutrition care plans
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
food and nutrition history
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
calorie counts
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
edema
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
nutrition screening
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
nutrition care process
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
Subjective Global Assessment
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
PES statement
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
critical pathways
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
200 to 360 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for prealbumin (transthyretin)
20 to 40 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
diet order
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
food record
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
food-frequency questionnaire
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
nutrition care plans
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
food and nutrition history
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
calorie counts
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
edema
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
nutrition screening
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
nutrition care process
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
Subjective Global Assessment
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
PES statement
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
critical pathways
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
200 to 360 mg/dL
acceptable laboratory range for albumin
20 to 40 mg/dL
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
diet order
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
food record
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
food-frequency questionnaire
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
nutrition care plans
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
food and nutrition history
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
calorie counts
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
edema
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
nutrition screening
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
nutrition care process
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
Subjective Global Assessment
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
PES statement
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
critical pathways
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
200 to 360 mg/dL
systematic approach used by registered dietitians that includes assessing, diagnosing, intervening, monitoring, evaluating, and treating the patient's nutrition problems
20 to 40 mg/dL
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
diet order
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
food record
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
food-frequency questionnaire
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
nutrition care plans
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
food and nutrition history
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
calorie counts
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
edema
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
nutrition screening
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
nutrition care process
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
Subjective Global Assessment
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
PES statement
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
critical pathways
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
200 to 360 mg/dL
comprehensive record of a person's food intake and dietary practices
20 to 40 mg/dL
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
diet order
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
food record
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
food-frequency questionnaire
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
nutrition care plans
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
food and nutrition history
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
calorie counts
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
edema
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
nutrition screening
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
nutrition care process
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
Subjective Global Assessment
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
PES statement
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
critical pathways
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
200 to 360 mg/dL
nutrition screening tool that primarily uses information pertinent to medical history and physical examination
20 to 40 mg/dL
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
diet order
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
food record
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
food-frequency questionnaire
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
nutrition care plans
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
food and nutrition history
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
calorie counts
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
edema
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
nutrition screening
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
nutrition care process
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
Subjective Global Assessment
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
PES statement
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
critical pathways
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
200 to 360 mg/dL
coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners
20 to 40 mg/dL
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
diet order
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
food record
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
food-frequency questionnaire
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
nutrition care plans
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
food and nutrition history
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
calorie counts
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
edema
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
nutrition screening
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
nutrition care process
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
Subjective Global Assessment
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
PES statement
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
critical pathways
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
200 to 360 mg/dL
the estimation of food energy consumed by patients for one or more days
20 to 40 mg/dL
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
diet order
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
food record
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
food-frequency questionnaire
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
nutrition care plans
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
food and nutrition history
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
calorie counts
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
edema
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
nutrition screening
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
nutrition care process
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
Subjective Global Assessment
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
PES statement
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
critical pathways
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
200 to 360 mg/dL
detailed log of food eaten during a specified time period, usually several days
20 to 40 mg/dL
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
diet order
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
food record
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
food-frequency questionnaire
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
nutrition care plans
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
food and nutrition history
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
calorie counts
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
edema
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
nutrition screening
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
nutrition care process
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
Subjective Global Assessment
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
PES statement
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
critical pathways
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
3.4 to 4.8 g/dL
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
200 to 360 mg/dL
assessment of health-related variables to identify patients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
20 to 40 mg/dL
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62
List two advantages and two disadvantages for each of the four methods used for obtaining food intake data.
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63
Explain why serum proteins are used as part of biochemical assessment measurements and list three examples.
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64
Describe the differences between fluid retention and dehydration.
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65
A nonspecific response to illness or injury is called "____. "

A) an allergy
B) cell-mediated immunity
C) humoral immunity
D) inflammation
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66
Describe clinical signs of malnutrition in an individual's eyes, lips, skin, and nails.
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67
Discuss the different types of historical data collected for a nutrition assessment.
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68
Discuss the undesirable impact of immune responses on nutrition status.
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69
Describe the use of anthropometric measurements in infants and children.
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70
Which tissue is a type of lymphoid tissue?

A) spleen
B) lungs
C) appendix
D) brain
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71
Discuss the role of nurses on the nutrition care team and list five nutrition-related nursing diagnoses.
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72
Describe how malnutrition impacts the body's immune response.
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73
Describe the effects of illness on nutrition status and list two examples of conditions associated with malnutrition.
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74
An example of an antigen is a(an) ____.

A) monocyte
B) NK cell
C) virus
D) T cell
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75
A foreign antigen has entered the body and has elicited the immune response. A helper T cell binds to an antigen fragment on an antigen-presenting cell. What happens next?

A) B cells produce more antibodies.
B) A cytotoxic T cell destroys the antigen.
C) Free antibodies attach to the antigens.
D) A macrophage engulfs the target antigen.
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76
Which type of cell releases proteins that damage parasites?

A) basophils
B) monocytes
C) eosinophils
D) neutrophils
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