1-31.Which of the following best explains why conversion disorder is a less common diagnosis today than it was historically?
A) Advances in the psychiatric profession have decreased the prevalence of all disorders linked to traumatic events.
B) Those once diagnosed with conversion disorder are now more likely to be diagnosed with PTSD.
C) Today's psychiatrists tend to view this diagnosis as one that lacks reliability and validity,thus they are hesitant to even consider it as a diagnostic option.
D) Advances in the medical field have made patients more sophisticated about medical and psychological disorders.
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q24: 1-23.People with pain disorder tend to
A)seem indifferent
Q25: 1-24.A new disorder in DSM-5 is:
A)conversion disorder.
B)hypochondriasis.
C)illness
Q26: 1-37.Alan fell off a ladder at work
Q27: 1-29.What is a pseudoseizure?
A)A seizure that looks
Q28: 1-34.Earl falls at work.The initial medical tests
Q30: 1-22.What would be most helpful to a
Q31: 1-36.Munchausen's syndrome by proxy is a variant
Q32: 1-21.Why is the timeframe of 6 months
Q33: 1-35.A nurse in an emergency room sees
Q34: 1-27.The current prevalence of conversion disorder is
A)decreasing
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