A gene is considered to be non-Mendelian in its inheritance pattern if it seems to "violate" Mendel's laws. Which of the following would then NOT be considered non-Mendelian?
A)A gene whose expression varies depending on the gender of the transmitting parent
B)A gene derived solely from maternal inheritance
C)A gene transmitted via the cytoplasm or cytoplasmic structures
D)A gene transmitted to males from the maternal line and from fathers to daughters
E)A gene transmitted by a virus to egg-producing cells

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The inheritance pattern described in choice D follows Mendel's laws, just with the variation that the gene is transmitted to males via the maternal line and to daughters via the paternal line. This pattern is known as mitochondrial inheritance and does not violate Mendel's laws. All other choices describe non-Mendelian inheritance patterns.

A Gene Is Considered to Be Non-Mendelian in Its Inheritance