If a bailment is intended to benefit only the bailor, which of the following statements is accurate?
A) The bailee is liable for harm to the bailed property arising out of either the bailee's ordinary or gross negligence.
B) The bailee is liable for harm to the bailed property arising only out of the bailee's gross negligence.
C) The bailee is liable for harm to the bailed property caused by even the slightest lack of due care on the part of the bailee.
D) The bailee is strictly liable for harm to the bailed property.
E) The bailee is not liable for harm to the bailed property because of the doctrine of assumption of the risk.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

In a bailment intended to benefit only the bailor, the bailee is held to a lower standard of care compared to a mutual benefit bailment. The bailee is liable for harm to the bailed property arising only out of the bailee's gross negligence, not for ordinary negligence. This recognizes that the bailee is providing a service or favor to the bailor without receiving a direct benefit.

If a Bailment Is Intended to Benefit Only the Bailor