In the model relating R&D spending to output and output to R&D spending, suppose that, for whatever autonomous reason, the home firm desires to spend more on R&D at each level of output. In this model, what does this greater R&D spending by the home firm do to R&D
spending by the foreign firm? Why? Does this result conform to your expectation of foreign firms' reactions in practice to increased R&D spending by home firms? Explain.
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