Deck 11: Network Performance and Recovery

Question 1

 When a device handles electrical signals improperly, usually resulting from a bad NIC, it is referred to by what term below?

A) ghost
B) jabber
C) talker
D) blabber

Answer 1

B

Question 2

 A highly available server is available what percentage of the time?

A) 90%
B) 99%
C) 99.99%
D) 99.999%

Answer 2

D

Question 3

 A brownout is a momentary decrease in voltage; also known as a sag.

Answer 3

True

Question 4

 The SNMP version 3 protocol introduces authentication, validation, and encryption for messages exchanged between devices and the network management console.

Question 5

 At what point is a packet considered to be a giant?

A) It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size.
B) It becomes a giant when it exceeds 1500 bytes.
C) It becomes a giant only when fragmented pieces are reassembled and the packet size is too large.
D) It becomes a giant once a VLAN tag is added.

Question 6

 What term is used to describe the average amount of time that will pass for a device before a failure is expected to occur?

A) estimated time to failure (ETTF)
B) product cycle lifetime (PCL)
C) maximum time available (MTA)
D) mean time between failures (MTBF)

Question 7

 Wireshark or any other monitoring software running on a single computer connected to a switch doesn't see all the traffic on a network, but only the traffic the switch sends to it, which includes broadcast traffic and traffic specifically addressed to the computer.

Question 8

 When using SNMP with TLS, what port do agents receive requests on?

A) 161
B) 162
C) 10161
D) 10162

Question 9

 A hot site consists of computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, but without appropriate configuration.

Question 10

 What happens when an NMS uses the SNMP walk command?

A) The NMS sends a request for data to the agent on a managed device.
B) The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database.
C) The NMS requests a list of all active SNMP traps on the system.
D) The NMS walks through a list of given SNMP hosts.

Question 11

 A system with an availability of 99.999% can be down for a maximum of 52 minutes per year.

Question 12

 Most UNIX and Linux desktop operating systems provide a GUI application for easily viewing and filtering the information in system logs.

Question 13

 When Comcast was found to be interfering with BitTorrent traffic, what method was being used?

A) Comcast was creating access lists that blocked known BitTorrent trackers.
B) Comcast was interjecting TCP segments with the RST (reset) field set.
C) Comcast used DNS poisoning to prevent clients from talking to other BitTorrent users.
D) Comcast used IP spoofing to impersonate other BitTorrent clients, then dropped traffic.

Question 14

 You can find out where various logs are kept on some UNIX and Linux systems by viewing the /etc/syslog.conf or /etc/rsyslog.conf files.

Question 15

 When using DiffServ, what type of forwarding utilizes a minimum departure rate from a given node, which is then assigned to each data stream?

A) assured forwarding
B) prioritized forwarding
C) scaled forwarding
D) expedited forwarding

Question 16

 Packets that are smaller than a medium's minimum packet size are known by what term below?

A) jabbers
B) giants
C) ghosts
D) runts

Question 17

 What 3-bit field in a 802.1Q tag is modified to set a frame's Class of Service (CoS)?

A) EtherType
B) CRC checksum
C) Tag Protocol Identifier (TPID)
D) Priority Code Point (PCP)

Question 18

 A RAID 5 configuration requires a minimum of two hard disks to operate.

Question 19

 Class of Service utilizes 8 levels of priority, and modifies the PCP field in an 802.1Q tag.

Question 20

 Setting a NIC to run in promiscuous mode will allow it to see all network traffic passing through a network switch.

Question 21

 What makes up the first 6 bits of the 8-bit DiffServ field?

A) Priority Code Point (PCP)
B) Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)
C) Class of Service (CoS)
D) Forward Error Correction (FEC)

Question 22

 A differential backup covers what data on a system?

A) It includes all data every time it is performed.
B) It includes only data that has changed since the last backup.
C) It includes data that has changed since the last full backup.
D) It includes data that has changed since the last incremental backup.

Question 23

 What is distributed switching?

A) It is when multiple physical switches are configured to act as a single switch.
B) It is multiple switches that provide redundancy switching for all switches in the group.
C) It is a single physical switch that is partitioned in software to perform as multiple switches.
D) It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts.

Question 24

 Which type of backup scheme only covers data that has changed since the last backup?

A) full backup
B) incremental backup
C) differential backup
D) snapshot backup

Question 25

 What does the Common Address Redundancy Protocol do?

A) It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same MAC address.
B) It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address.
C) It allows multiple devices to share the same fully qualified domain name.
D) It allows multiple devices to share hardware resources.

Question 26

 How does a line conditioning UPS protect network equipment?

A) It protects against electrical surges.
B) It shields equipment from lightning damage.
C) It reduces fluctuations in incoming voltage.
D) It filters line noise from incoming power.

Question 27

 The Link Aggregation Control Protocol was initially defined by what IEEE standard?

A) IEEE 802.3af
B) IEEE 802.1cd
C) IEEE 802.3ad
D) IEEE 802.3bd

Question 28

 Which of the following statements describes a RAID 0 configuration?

A) In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance.
B) In a RAID 0, data is mirrored on multiple disks to provide fault tolerance.
C) In a RAID 0, data is striped across three or more drives, with parity information added to the data.
D) In a RAID 0, four or more disks are used to mirror data within each pair of disks, and then striped to multiple pairs of disks.

Question 29

 Which type of uninterruptible power supply uses AC power to continuously charge its battery, while also providing power to devices through the battery?

A) standby UPS
B) online UPS
C) line conditioning UPS
D) surge UPS

Question 30

 What statement regarding the use of a network attached storage device is accurate?

A) A NAS does not contain its own file system, rather it relies on the host file system provided by individual clients.
B) A NAS reads and writes from its disks significantly slower than other types of servers.
C) A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service.
D) A NAS can typically only support RAID-0 configurations.

Question 31

 A snapshot is most similar to which type of backup scheme?

A) incremental backup
B) differential backup
C) full backup
D) versioned backup

Question 32

 A network TAP serves what purpose on a network?

A) It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports.
B) It provides wireless monitoring capabilities, as well as spectrum analysis.
C) It monitors network throughput at a specific point in the network.
D) It serves as a miniature firewall that can be placed in front of any connection.

Question 33

 When viewing a syslog message, what does a level of 0 indicate?

A) The message is an error condition on the system.
B) The message is a warning condition on the system.
C) The message is an emergency situation on the system.
D) The message represents debug information.

Question 34

 In planning for disaster recovery, what is the ultimate goal?

A) The preservation of critical data.
B) The continuation of business.
C) The management of damage.
D) The protection of infrastructure.

Question 35

 You are attempting to determine how available your Linux systems are, and need to find the current system uptime. What command should you use?

A) uptime
B) show runtime
C) lastboot
D) display stats

Question 36

 What Storage Area Network (SAN) protocol runs on top of TCP, and can be used on an existing twisted-pair Ethernet network, while maintaining low cost?

A) Fibre Channel (FC)
B) Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
C) Internet SCSI (iSCSI)
D) InfiniBand (IB)

Question 37

 Each managed object on a managed device using SNMP is assigned which of the following?

A) object identifier (OID)
B) TCP/UDP port
C) process ID
D) inode number

Question 38

 If you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day?

A) .4 seconds
B) 8 seconds
C) 1 minute, 26 seconds
D) 14 minutes, 23 seconds

Question 39

 Once a device has failed, what metric measures the average amount of time to repair?

A) mean time to repair (MTTR)
B) mean time to restore (MTTR)
C) mean field replacement time (MFRT)
D) mean restoration time (MRT)

Question 40

 The grouping of multiple servers so that they appear as a single device to the rest of the network is known as which term?

A) load balancing
B) clustering
C) link aggregating
D) server overloading

Question 41

 In preparing and planning for disaster recovery, what is the difference between an incident and a disaster?

Question 42

 What are some of the more common network performance metrics that are utilized?

Question 43

 In response to an incident, how should chain of custody of evidence be handled?

Question 44

 The DiffServ technique for addressing QoS issues defines what two different types of data stream forwarding?

Question 45

 Sections of a disaster recovery plan related to computer systems should include what information?

Question 46

 The creation of a response team should include what team roles?

Question 47

 How do the three versions of the Simple Network Management Protocol differ?

Question 48

 What is the difference between a fault and a failure in relation to networking?

Question 49

 The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) can be configured in what three different ways?

Question 50

 What are the different types of power flaws that can cause damage?