Deck 46: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument

Question 1

Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix?

A) Macrophages
B) Mast cells
C) Fibroblasts
D) Histiocytes

Answer 1

Fibroblasts

Question 2

Which receptors of the sympathetic nervous system regulate heat loss through the skin?

A) Cholinergic
B) ß-Adrenergic
C) a-Adrenergic
D) Anticholinergic

Answer 2

a-Adrenergic

Question 3

Cutaneous vasculitis develops from the deposit of _________________.

A) Immune complexes
B) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
C) Complement proteins
D) T lymphocytes

Answer 3

Immune complexes

Question 4

What term is used to identify skin lesions that are elevated,rounded,and firm with irregular clawlike margins that extend beyond the original site of injury?

A) Psoriasis
B) Dermatitis
C) Acne
D) Keloid

Question 5

Which cells of the dermis release histamine and play a role in the hypersensitivity reactions of the skin?

A) Histiocytes
B) Fibroblasts
C) Mast cells
D) Macrophages

Question 6

Lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated,thick,silvery,scaly,and erythematous characterize which type of psoriasis?

A) Plaque
B) Inverse
C) Guttate
D) Erythrodermic

Question 7

Which immunoglobulin is found in skin biopsy with immunofluorescent observation of people with discoid lupus erythematosus?

A) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
B) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
C) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
D) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

Question 8

What type of skin infection is tinea corporis (ringworm)?

A) Nematode
B) Fungal
C) Viral
D) Bacterial

Question 9

What medical term is used to identify an inflammatory disorder of the skin that is often considered synonymous with dermatitis and characterized by pruritus with lesions that have an indistinct border?

A) Eczema
B) Psoriasis
C) Atopic dermatitis
D) Pityriasis rosea

Question 10

In allergic contact dermatitis,which cells possess the antigens and present them to T cells?

A) Langerhans cells
B) Merkel cells
C) Keratinocytes
D) Macrophages

Question 11

In latex allergies,which immunoglobulin (Ig)is associated with an immediate reaction?

A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM

Question 12

Which type of dressings should be applied to pressure ulcers?

A) Flat and dry
B) Flat and moist
C) Bulky and dry
D) Bulky and moist

Question 13

What is the first change in the skin that indicates a pressure ulcer?

A) Blanchable erythema of intact skin
B) Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
C) Blister at the site of pressure
D) Reddish-purple discoloration

Question 14

What clinical manifestations do allergic contact and stasis dermatitis have in common?

A) Petechiae and hyperpigmentation
B) Edema and vesicular lesions
C) Scaling and crusting of lesions
D) Erythema and pruritus

Question 15

Keloids are sharply elevated,irregularly shaped,progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of which substance in the corneum during connective tissue repair?

A) Elastin
B) Collagen
C) Stroma
D) Reticular fibers

Question 16

Which gland releases secretions that are important in thermoregulation and cooling of the body through evaporation?

A) Sebaceous
B) Apocrine
C) Eccrine
D) Exocrine

Question 17

Chickenpox (varicella)may be followed years later by which disorder?

A) Erysipelas
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Warts (Verrucae)
D) Herpes zoster

Question 18

Which component of the epidermis initiates immune responses and provides a defense against environmental antigens?

A) Langerhans cells
B) Merkel cells
C) Keratinocytes
D) Melanocytes

Question 19

Which skin disorder begins with a single lesion that is circular,demarcated,and salmon pink,measures approximately 3 to 4 cm in diameter,and is usually located on the trunk?

A) Lichen planus
B) Pityriasis rosea
C) Psoriasis
D) Acne rosacea

Question 20

Which term is used to identify a collection of infected hair follicles occurring most often on the back of the neck,the upper back,and the lateral thighs that forms a mass and evolves into an erythematous,painful,and edematous mass and drains through many openings?

A) Erysipelas
B) Furuncles
C) Carbuncles
D) Boils

Question 21

What is the medical term for a fungal infection of the nail plate?

A) Paronychia
B) Onychomycosis
C) Tinea corporis
D) Tinea capitis

Question 22

A small (less than 1 cm)lesion with regular edges and bristlelike hairs with a color change that can range from skin tones to light brown characterize which form of nevus?

A) Junctional
B) Epidermal
C) Intradermal
D) Compound

Question 23

The alteration of which gene is associated with basal cell carcinoma?

A) myc
B) TP53
C) src
D) Ras

Question 24

Lesions that usually have depressed centers with rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck characterize which malignancy?

A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Kaposi sarcoma
C) Malignant melanoma
D) Basal cell carcinoma

Question 25

Which statements are true regarding Kaposi sarcoma? (Select all that apply.)

A) South America has been the site of the endemic form of Kaposi sarcoma.
B) Kaposi sarcoma is a vascular malignancy.
C) It is associated with drug-induced immunosuppression.
D) Kaposi sarcoma is associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
E) Presentation of the classic form of Kaposi sarcoma is observed on the lower legs of older men.

Question 26

Women who develop hirsutism may be secreting hormones associated with which condition? (Select all that apply.)

A) Adrenal hyperplasia
B) Cushing disease
C) Polycystic ovaries
D) Addison disease
E) Adrenal tumor

Question 27

What effect does normal aging have on the wound healing process? (Select all that apply.)

A) Decreased cell proliferation
B) Decreased blood supply
C) Depressed immune responses
D) Depressed appetite
E) Decreased cognitive function

Question 28

Which medications may exacerbate existing psoriasis? (Select all that apply.)

A) Antibiotics
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D) Beta blockers
E) Lithium

Question 29

What term is used to identify an inflamed hair root?

A) Tinea
B) Verruca
C) Furuncle
D) Erysipelas

Question 30

Which cell is thought to be the progenitor cell of Kaposi sarcoma?

A) Endothelial
B) Keratinocyte
C) Melanocyte
D) Exothelial

Question 31

Which inflammatory mediators are active in frostbite? (Select all that apply.)

A) Leukotrienes
B) Histamine
C) Prostaglandins
D) Bradykinin
E) Thromboxanes

Question 32

Match the descriptions of the skin lesions with the disorder where it is found.
Varicella (chickenpox),herpes zoster (shingles)

A)Elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter
B)Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with a flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
C)Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter
D)Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid and transient with a variable diameter
E)Elevated circumscribed, superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter

Question 33

What is the purpose of administering ibuprofen to individuals being treated for frostbite?

A) Treating fever
B) Preventing plate aggregation
C) Reducing pain
D) Inhibiting prostaglandins

Question 34

What name is given to a benign proliferation of basal cells that produces smooth or warty elevated lesions on the chest,back,and face that are tan or waxy,yellow,flesh-colored,or dark brown to black?

A) Basal keratosis
B) Seborrheic keratosis
C) Keratoacanthoma
D) Actinic keratosis

Question 35

Which statements are true regarding a nevus? (Select all that apply.)

A) A nevus is an aggregation of melanocytes
B) Nevi begin to form at the ages of 3 to 5 years.
C) Nevi are characterized by irregular borders.
D) Nevi share a relationship with melanoma.
E) Nevi always warrant being removed.

Question 36

Scleroderma is associated with _________________.

A) X-linked recessive gene
B) X-linked dominant gene
C) Virus
D) Autoantibodies

Question 37

Bowen disease is a form of which type of cancer?

A) Kaposi sarcoma
B) Malignant melanoma
C) Basal cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 38

Match the descriptions of the skin lesions with the disorder where it is found.
Urticaria,allergic reaction

A)Elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter
B)Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with a flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
C)Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter
D)Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid and transient with a variable diameter
E)Elevated circumscribed, superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter

Question 39

Which intervention is included in the treatment of frostbite?

A) Applying local, dry heat
B) Rubbing or massaging the area
C) Immersing in warm water
D) Leaving the area uncovered

Question 40

Which skin lesion is mediated by the immunoglobulin E (IgE)-stimulated release of histamine,bradykinin,or kallikrein from mast cells?

A) Dermatitis
B) Scleroderma
C) Urticaria
D) Cutaneous vasculitis

Question 41

Match the descriptions of the skin lesions with the disorder where it is found.
Psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratoses

A)Elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter
B)Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with a flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
C)Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter
D)Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid and transient with a variable diameter
E)Elevated circumscribed, superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter

Question 42

Match the descriptions of the skin lesions with the disorder where it is found.
Nevus (flat mole)

A)Elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter
B)Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with a flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
C)Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter
D)Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid and transient with a variable diameter
E)Elevated circumscribed, superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter

Question 43

Match the descriptions of the skin lesions with the disorder where it is found.
Wart (verruca)or lichen planus

A)Elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter
B)Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with a flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
C)Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter
D)Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid and transient with a variable diameter
E)Elevated circumscribed, superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter