Deck 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites

Question 1

Acne

A) is due to bacteria most commonly Propionibacterium acnes
B) forms a thick crust or scab called eschar
C) can be treated with antibiotics or accutane
D) two of the above

Answer 1

D

Question 2

What are means by which asymptomatic Staphylococcus carriers (like hospital personnel)spread staphylococci?

A) via the skin
B) by nasal dropets
C) fomites
D) all of the above

Answer 2

D

Question 3

The majority of organisms normal to the skin are

A) Gram-negative
B) Gram-positive
C) fungi
D) viruses

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Which of the following statements about scalded skin syndrome is incorrect?

A) caused by S. aureus
B) rarely leads to bacteremia
C) most commonly occurs in infants
D) exotoxins cause the upper skin layers to separate and peel off

Question 5

All of the following are reasons why the eyes have no normal microflora except

A) eyelids present a physical barrier to colonization
B) viruses are unable to penetrate the conjunctiva
C) lacrimal gland secretes fluid that continuously flushes the cornea
D) tears contain an enzyme that breaks down bacterial cell wall

Question 6

All of the following statements refer to German measles except

A) they may cause rubella syndrome
B) a vaccine has reduced the incidence of rubella birth defects
C) mild virus infection with exanthema
D) only girls are immunized with the rubella vaccine

Question 7

Which of the following is not considered resident microflora of the skin?

A) Staphylococcus
B) Corynebacterium
C) E.coli
D) Demodex

Question 8

Which of the following staphylococcal infections are matched correctly with infection sites?

A) folliculitis - deep internal pus-filled infection
B) furuncle - massive lesion on neck and upper back
C) boil - an exterior pus-filled infection
D) abscess - base of an eyelash

Question 9

Debridement

A) destroys much of the body's protective covering
B) is a surgical scraping technique that improves antibiotic efficacy
C) prevents nosicomal infections from occurring in severe burns
D) two of the above

Question 10

The most common bacteria to cause infections from soaking in a hot tub is__________.

A) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Staphylococcus aureus

Question 11

Mucus membranes

A) produce an oily secretion called sebum
B) contain keratin, a waterproofing protein
C) trap pathogens in a thick watery secretion of glycoproteins and electrolytes
D) are distributed with sweat glands that lower the pH of the membranes

Question 12

Varicella-Zoster Virus is associated with all statements below except

A) causes chicken pox
B) latent virus is reactivated when cell-mediated immunity drops below a critical level
C) causes shingles
D) acyclovir has been shown to be an excellent treatment for shingles

Question 13

Staphylococcus aureus causes all of the following except

A) scalded skin syndrome
B) carbuncles
C) impetigo
D) erysipelas

Question 14

The flesh-eating bacteria are

A) Staphylococcus
B) Streptococcus
C) Pseudomonas
D) Propionibacterium

Question 15

Measles (also known as rubeola)could be described by each of the following statements except

A) not very contagious
B) Koplik's spots seen on cheek mucosa
C) two serious complications are encephalitis and sub-acute sclerosing panencephalitis
D) most common complications are upper respiratory & middle ear infections

Question 16

Genital warts are caused by

A) moluscum contagiosum
B) human papillomavirus
C) cowpox
D) HZV

Question 17

Which statement about skin is incorrect?

A) largest single organ of the body
B) dead epithelial cells function as a barrier for infections
C) normal microflora are very sensitive to the skin's antimicrobial substance
D) consists of a thin epidermis and a thicker underlying dermis layer

Question 18

Smallpox

A) was eradicated worldwide
B) could be used in biological warfare
C) vaccine is a live non-virulent smallpox virus
D) two of the above

Question 19

Scarlet fever can lead to serious complications including

A) glomerulonephritis
B) meningitis
C) rheumatic fever
D) two of the above

Question 20

Which of the following conditions is associated with the erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes?

A) rheumatic fever
B) toxic shock syndrome
C) scarlet fever
D) roseola

Question 21

Candida albicans is characterized by all of the following except

A) an oval budding yeast
B) etiology of thrush
C) vaginitis
D) not found normally in intestines or urogenital tract

Question 22

Which pair of fungal skin infections is matched incorrectly?

A) Tinea cruris-jock itch
B) Tinea unguium-ringworm of the nails
C) Tinea capitis-scalp ringworm
D) Tinea corporis-ringworm of the face

Question 23

Which of the following fungal infections may first appear as a nodular mass at the site of the wound and then spread to the lymphatics?

A) Blastomycosis
B) Cryptococcosis
C) Sportrichosis
D) Tinea vesicular

Question 24

What is the difference between rubella and rubeola?

A) only rubeola causes exanthema (skin rash)
B) rubella causes skin rash and rubeola crosses the placenta
C) both cause skin rashes but only rubella can cross the placenta
D) no difference; they are simply different names for same viral skin disease

Question 25

Dermal warts

A) are more common in older people than children
B) never go away on their own
C) are often treated by freezing the tissue and then excising the wart
D) two of the above

Question 26

Burn infections

A) are difficult to diagnose as early signs are often decreased appetite and fatigue
B) are difficult to treat as antibiotics are ineffective against the viruses that cause them
C) with a grapelike odor and greenish discoloration are often due to viruses
D) two of the above

Question 27

Which is the correct matching of disease with its characteristics?

A) madura foot - itching due to schistosomes burrowing into skin
B) dracunculiasis - sudden fever followed by rose-colored rash
C) dermatomycoses - difficult to treat dry scaly lesions
D) swimmer's itch - due to guinea worm, a parasitic helminth

Question 28

Roseola

A) causes a sudden rash and brief high fever
B) is also known as german measles
C) causes a lifelong latent infection of T cells
D) two of the above

Question 29

What is the relationship between genital warts and cervical cancer?

A) Cervical cancer is caused by genital warts
B) Genital warts causes cervical cancer
C) Different strains of the same virus cause genital warts and cervical cancer
D) two of the above

Question 30

Which of the following statements about pox diseases is incorrect?

A) molluscum contagiosum only elicits a slight immune response
B) monkey pox outbreaks have increased with the discontinuation of smallpox vaccination
C) vaccinia virus can be used as a smallpox vaccine
D) cowpox only causes disease in cows, humans can not be infected

Question 31

Subcutaneous fungal infections are caused by

A) Sporothrix schenckii
B) Candida
C) Microsporum
D) two of the above

Question 32

Blastomycosis

A) is common in the Mississippi Valley
B) causes disfiguring granulomatous pus producing skin lessions
C) occurs mostly in young female children
D) two of the above

Question 33

Onchocerciasis and loaiasis,both parasitic eye infections,are very difficult to control because

A) it is difficult to control the fly population
B) clean water is available
C) antibiotics are not available
D) newborns are infected at birth

Question 34

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is implicated in eye infections such as

A) trachoma
B) ophthalmia neonatorum
C) conjunctivitis
D) two of the above

Question 35

Aspergillosis

A) in immunodeficient patients causes wound infections
B) causes dry scaly lesions on various parts of skin
C) is responsible for thrush and vaginitis
D) can require amputation

Question 36

Athlete's foot is a type of

A) ringworm
B) subcutaneous fungal infection
C) opportunistic fungal infection
D) a tiny worm-like parasite

Question 37

Dermatomycoses are caused by

A) Epidermophyton
B) Candida
C) Microsporum
D) two of the above

Question 38

Which viral disease is seasonal with incidence highest in March and April?

A) moluscum contagiosum
B) smallpox
C) chickenpox
D) human papillomavirus

Question 39

Which correctly matches the disease caused by VZV virus?

A) shingles - virus is carried in blood to various tissues
B) chickenpox - confined to a single region supplied by a particular nerve
C) chickenpox - is due to latent virus that is reactivated
D) shingles - occurs when cell-mediated immunity drops below a critical level

Question 40

All of the following are symptoms of measles or rubeola except

A) Koplik's spots
B) upper respiratory and middle ear infections
C) stillborn, heart abnormalities or low birth weight
D) red raised rash caused by T cells interacting with virus-infected cells in small blood vessels

Question 41

How are juvenile onset laryngeal warts acquired?

A) during passage through an infected birth canal
B) by contact with fomites
C) by contact with moist lesions
D) none of the above

Question 42

Bacterial infections of the eye include all of the following except

A) onchocerciasis
B) ophthalmia neonatorum
C) conjunctivitis
D) trachoma

Question 43

Cat scratch fever is caused by

A) Spirillum minor
B) Pasteurella multocida
C) Bartonella hensalae
D) two of the above

Question 44

Human bites can cause an opportunistic infection with

A) Pasteurella multocida
B) Eikenella corrodens
C) Eubacterium yurii
D) Streptobacillus moniliformis

Question 45

Which of the following does not refer to gas gangrene?

A) caused by Clostridium species
B) contains crepitant tissue
C) necrosis appears
D) vaccine is available, but not widely used

Question 46

When individuals live in an area of endemic __________,they are usually blind by 40 years of age.

A) Onchocerca volvulus
B) Loa loa
C) Adenovirus
D) Enterovirus

Question 47

Which of the following insect diseases are correctly matched with their characteristics?

A) Myiasis - screwworms injure cattle
B) Blackfly fever - toxins introduced cause fever and ascending motor paralysis
C) Chigger dermatitis - inflammation in pubic areas at louse bite sites
D) Scabies - congo floor maggot sucks human blood

Question 48

Gas gangrene was historically thought of as a battlefield injury and thought to have played a role in determining the outcome of armed conflicts. Describe gas gangrene. What causes gas gangrene? Why is amputation so common? And what civilians are susceptible to the disease?

Question 49

Gas gangrene,with gas production leading to tissue necrosis,is due to

A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Spirillum minor

Question 50

A 4-year-old girl in day care was brought to the doctor because of several reddish and round scaling lesions on her arms. The girl had no other lesions except the ones on the arm and had no other symptoms and no signs of pus in the lesions. Why is this not likely to be scarlet fever? Why is this not likely to be measles? Given that the girl is diagnosed with ringworm,should the girl be prescribed antibiotics,antivirals or topical antifungal ointments? How do you think the girl got ringworm?

Question 51

The reason why newborns in developed countries receive antibiotic or silver nitrate drops at birth is

A) to prevent opthalmia neonatorum
B) because pinkeye is extremely contagious
C) gnats can transmit organisms from the eyes of newborns
D) two of the above

Question 52

Epidemic karatoconjunctivitis is characterized by

A) bacterial infection
B) inflammation that spreads to cornea
C) transmitted in dust
D) two of the above

Question 53

Viral infections of the eye include

A) trachoma
B) epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
C) acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
D) two of the above

Question 54

Pediculosis is an infestation of

A) lice
B) ticks
C) chiggers
D) mites

Question 55

What's the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have?