Deck 4: Physical Development

Question 1

A 3-month-old infant is most likely to be fussy during what part of the day?

A) morning
B) early afternoon
C) evening
D) middle of the night

Answer 1

evening

Question 2

The tendency for growth, if disturbed or deflected to return to an expected path, is known as:

A) directionality.
B) independence of systems.
C) canalization.
D) epiphyses.

Answer 2

canalization.

Question 3

A typical 2-year-old is:

A) about 22 inches tall.
B) about 27 inches tall.
C) about 34 inches tall.
D) about 42 inches tall.

Answer 3

about 34 inches tall.

Question 4

The principle that describes growth as having intrinsic direction is known as:

A) directionality.
B) cephalocaudal.
C) proximodistal.
D) canalization.

Question 5

Mary noticed that her baby has developed the ability to control her chest and trunk before mastering fine motor movement of her hands and fingers. Mary has discovered what experts call:

A) proximodistal development.
B) cephalocaudal development.
C) independence of systems.
D) canalization.

Question 6

Children gain control of their head first, then their trunk, and finally their legs; this is an example of:

A) proximodistal development.
B) cephalocaudal development.
C) independence of systems.
D) canalization.

Question 7

The nervous system develops quickly in the first 2 years, whereas overall growth occurs more slowly. This is an example of:

A) proximodistal development.
B) cephalocaudal development.
C) independence of systems.
D) canalization.

Question 8

What purpose does infants' rapid weight gain serve in their development?

A) fat stores extra energy for rapid motor development
B) evolutionarily designed to prepare for scarce resources
C) helps keep body temperature even
D) fat stores antibodies needed in the first year

Question 9

Which statement is not true about children's primary teeth?

A) African American children's teeth erupt earlier than other children's teeth.
B) Primary teeth are fully formed before children are born.
C) Girl's teeth erupt later than boy's teeth.
D) The timing of children's teeth eruption is associated with their overall bone growth.

Question 10

The programmed process of cell death undergone by some neurons in response to a relative lack of environmental input is known as:

A) synaptic pruning.
B) apoptosis.
C) epiphyses.
D) lateralization.

Question 11

As the brain develops, myelination serves to:

A) coordinate activity between the neurons.
B) prune connections that are not receiving any stimulation.
C) create synapses.
D) transmit messages more efficiently.

Question 12

Spatial processing takes place in the:

A) temporal lobes.
B) frontal lobes.
C) parietal lobes.
D) occipital lobes.

Question 13

The brain has the ability to create circuits based on experiences that can be expected for typical humans; this is known as:

A) experience-dependant plasticity.
B) experience-expectant plasticity.
C) synaptic pruning.
D) apoptosis.

Question 14

The brain has the ability to create circuits based on experiences that are atypical in the human experience. This known as:

A) experience-dependant plasticity.
B) experience-expectant plasticity.
C) synaptic pruning.
D) apoptosis.

Question 15

Anna is an accomplished cellist. She has been playing for 20 years and practices every day. The region of her brain that controls hand-eye coordination has different brain circuitry than typical people's brain circuitry. This is an example of:

A) experience-dependant plasticity.
B) experience-expectant plasticity.
C) synaptic pruning.
D) apoptosis.

Question 16

The typical infant will take their first steps:

A) around 9 months.
B) around 12 months.
C) around 15 months.
D) around 18 months.

Question 17

One study of parents who abuse their children found that:

A) their children had slower than normal motor development.
B) their children had faster than normal motor development.
C) these parents overestimated what their child should be able to do.
D) these parents underestimated what their child should be able to do.

Question 18

Which of the statements are true about immigrant mothers compared to non immigrant mothers?

A) immigrant mothers are more sensitive to their babies' needs
B) immigrant mothers are less sensitive to their babies' needs
C) immigrant mothers have more knowledge of infants' development
D) immigrant mothers have less knowledge of infants' development

Question 19

The disappearance of reflexes in the first year seems to associated with:

A) the development of motor skills.
B) maturation of the muscular system.
C) maturation of the cerebral cortex.
D) the introduction of solid food.

Question 20

Thelen argues that the stepping reflex does not actually disappear in the first year but instead is restricted by:

A) infants' bundling and clothing.
B) parents' fears of falls.
C) their weight and limited muscle strength.
D) their inability to swim.

Question 21

Infants' motor development by three months typically includes:

A) sitting independently.
B) prop themselves on two arms while on the stomach.
C) using the pincer grasp.
D) sitting in the tripod position.

Question 22

What is the earliest age that research suggests that infants make attempts to reach objects?

A) 1 week
B) 1 month
C) 2 months
D) 3 months

Question 23

At what age are infants most likely to swipe at and hit an object but not to grasp it?

A) 2 months
B) 4 months
C) 8 months
D) 12 months

Question 24

Infants can reach for objects earlier if:

A) they get daily practice.
B) the objects are easy for the infant to see (e.g., black and white).
C) when supported in a baby chair.
D) if they wear less constrictive clothing.

Question 25

An experimental apparatus used to study infant reactions to cues for a physical drop-off is known as:

A) a veritable cliff.
B) a visual cliff.
C) an apparent cliff.
D) a shallow cliff.

Question 26

Gibson's work with the visual cliff supports the argument that:

A) infants have an inborn fear of heights.
B) infants must learn a fear of heights.
C) infants can not stay balanced when reaching for an object over the cliff.
D) infants will follow their mothers' instructions in any situation.

Question 27

Babies are better at judging their likelihood to fall off a cliff if they are in what position?

A) crawling
B) standing
C) sitting
D) lying on their back

Question 28

Jamie is moving around on two feet while holding onto the couch for support. He is:

A) crawling.
B) sliding.
C) cruising.
D) scooting.

Question 29

Scott started cruising at about 11 months old. Compared to other infants, his motor development is:

A) a little ahead.
B) a little behind.
C) normal.
D) there is no standard time for infants to begin cruising.

Question 30

Infants adjust their feet in ways that increases their balance when beginning to walk. Which is not adjustment they make:

A) take small steps.
B) set feet wide apart.
C) toddle and bob back and forth.
D) use the typical heel-toe adult walking pattern.

Question 31

Gracie has been walking for 2 months. However, when her mom puts a backpack on her with her lunch and nap needs, she keeps falling down. Researchers suggest that this indicates that:

A) children cannot understand the idea of carrying things while walking.
B) muscle strength is important in the development of skill in walking.
C) she began walking too early.
D) she may struggle with further motor development.

Question 32

Typically, a toddler takes how many steps over the course of a day?

A) about 500
B) about 1,000
C) about 5,000
D) about 9,000

Question 33

Researchers have found that when infants are trained to manage slopes as crawlers, later they:

A) walk earlier than other babies.
B) walk later than other babies.
C) manage slopes easily as a walker.
D) need to learn slopes as a walker.

Question 34

The Zinacanteco people of Mexico have children who:

A) show slower motor development than babies in the United States.
B) show faster motor development than babies in the United States.
C) show similar development to the babies in the United States.
D) vary in their motor development more than those in the United States.

Question 35

Cross-cultural studies of motor development indicate that:

A) the timing of motor skills is determined solely by nature.
B) the timing of motor skills is determined in part by practice.
C) parents in some cultures do not stimulate their infants appropriately.
D) by nature some races develop motor skills more quickly.

Question 36

The Kipsigis people of Kenya have children who:

A) show slower motor development than babies in the United States.
B) show faster motor development than babies in the United States.
C) show similar development to the babies in the United States.
D) vary in their motor development more than those in the United States.

Question 37

Jessica is at her 12-month check-up. Her doctor will assess several skills to check for normal motor development. The doctor would not be concerned if she learned that Jessica cannot:

A) point to objects or pictures.
B) crawl.
C) stand.
D) walk.

Question 38

Parents should not be concerned that their baby can't sit with help until the baby is:

A) 2 months old.
B) 4 months old.
C) 7 months old.
D) 12 months old.

Question 39

The Healthy Steps Program's aim was to promote:

A) earlier motor development.
B) improve parents' satisfaction with pediatrician services.
C) make babies' environments safer.
D) increasing warmth between parents and infants.

Question 40

The ability to tell objects apart using touch is known as:

A) intermodal perception.
B) object segregation.
C) haptic discrimination.
D) perceptual tuning.

Question 41

In a darkened room, infants prefer to play with smooth objects than rough ones. This indicates that they have achieved:

A) intermodal perception.
B) object segregation.
C) haptic discrimination.
D) perceptual tuning.

Question 42

By what age is infants' clarity of vision equal to adults' vision?

A) 2 weeks
B) 2 months
C) 6 months
D) 12 months

Question 43

Franz's original finding that babies prefer to look at patterns more than at solid colors allowed researchers to test:

A) babies' color preference.
B) babies' color discrimination.
C) babies' visual acuity.
D) babies object segregation.

Question 44

The ability to identify objects in the world and to tell where one object begins and another one ends is known as:

A) intermodal perception.
B) object segregation.
C) haptic discrimination.
D) perceptual tuning.

Question 45

Katie is 4 months old and she can recognize that a toy truck is one whole object. Which cue is she using?

A) the truck is all the same color indicating one object
B) the parts of the truck move together indicating that it is one object
C) her mother has referred to it verbally as one object
D) she assumes everything that if parts touch it is one whole object

Question 46

EEG recordings made while infants looked at illusory objects indicates that the development of perceptual development is associated with development in the:

A) temporal lobes.
B) hypothalamus.
C) parietal lobes.
D) frontal cortex.

Question 47

At what age can infants discriminate between different tones?

A) newborn
B) 2 months
C) 6 months
D) 12 months

Question 48

Which is not an auditory preference of infants?

A) melodies
B) human conversation
C) child-directed speech
D) Western music

Question 49

Which of these can infants not perceive better than adults?

A) musical scales from cultures that are not their own
B) complicated phonemes
C) sound patterns in nonnative languages
D) differences in facial features of monkeys

Question 50

When Holly was an infant she could discriminate between the phonemes of other languages. As a toddler, she can no longer do so; this is known as:

A) haptic discrimination.
B) perceptual tuning.
C) experience-expectant plasticity.
D) canalization.

Question 51

What experience can delay the process of perceptual tuning?

A) having parents with limited verbal abilities
B) being briefly exposed to nonnative language
C) less than stimulating home environments
D) exposure to significant amounts of music

Question 52

The process of becoming less sensitive over time to stimuli that are not in the typical environment is known as:

A) haptic discrimination.
B) perceptual tuning.
C) experience-expectant plasticity.
D) canalization.

Question 53

Sally is 9 months old and loves to look at picture books. In one of her books is a picture of grapes. Sally often reaches out to grab the grapes. This shows that:

A) Sally has developed the ability to imagine.
B) Sally cannot understand representation of objects in pictures.
C) Sally is focused on nutritional stimuli.
D) Sally has developed a sense of humor.

Question 54

Why might breast-fed babies be easier to transition to solid food?

A) breast-fed babies have a closer relationship with mother
B) breast-fed babies have a less difficult temperament
C) breast-fed babies are used to variety of tastes offered by breast milk
D) bottle-fed babies prefer the sweet taste of manufactured formula

Question 55

If more mothers breast-fed their babies there may be a resulting reduction in which childhood problem?

A) autism
B) attention deficit disorder
C) obesity
D) reading delays

Question 56

Why are breast-fed infants less vulnerable to diseases?

A) it is difficult to sterilize bottles
B) breast-fed babies are less likely to be in day care
C) mother's antibodies are transferred to the infant in breast milk
D) more people are more likely to feed bottle fed babies, exposing them to germs

Question 57

When a woman breast-feeds her baby, her body releases a hormone that:

A) helps the uterus regain its prepregnancy size.
B) prevents pregnancy.
C) promotes bonding between mother and child.
D) keeps the mother healthy.

Question 58

In the United States, most infants are weaned off breast milk:

A) in the first few weeks.
B) in the first 6 months.
C) by the first year.
D) by 18 months.

Question 59

A condition that results from extreme starvation; symptoms include swollen bellies and feet, hair loss, and lack of energy.

A) kwashiorkor
B) marasmus
C) malnutrition
D) anemia

Question 60

A condition that results from extreme starvation in which the body becomes extremely frail and fragile is known as:

A) kwashiorkor.
B) marasmus.
C) malnutrition.
D) anemia.

Question 61

Much of the behavioral and cognitive effects of malnourishment can be accounted for by:

A) brain cell death.
B) reduced metabolism.
C) less stimulating environment.
D) environmental stress.

Question 62

An uncertainty about whether enough food will be available when it is needed is known as:

A) food insecurity.
B) nutrition poverty.
C) malnutrition.
D) marasmus.

Question 63

Around the world, the most sensitive parents:

A) put their children to bed at regular times.
B) provide a security object to soothe children into sleep.
C) have infants sleep alone and independently.
D) there is no worldwide pattern to healthy sleep in infancy.

Question 64

How much sleep do infants and toddlers need in 24 hours?

A) 8.5-10
B) 11.5-13
C) 16.5-18
D) some babies need much more sleep than others

Question 65

SIDS mostly strikes at what age in infancy?

A) first few weeks
B) 2 to 4 months
C) 6 to 8 months
D) 10 to 12 months

Question 66

Which is not a risk factor for SIDS?

A) gender
B) season
C) birth weight
D) bottle-feeding

Question 67

George and Betty are concerned about SIDS in their twin boys who were born early. It is now winter; what can they do to reduce their elevated risk of SIDS?

A) keep their room warmer than normal
B) give them extra blankets
C) put them in the parents' bed
D) avoid all exposure to tobacco smoke

Question 68

The most powerful thing that parents can do to reduce their child's risk of SIDS is to:

A) check on their child repeatedly at night.
B) breast-feed their infant.
C) put their infants to sleep on their back.
D) medicating all respiratory symptoms.

Question 69

Today, most infants are put to sleep:

A) on their side.
B) on their stomach.
C) on their back.
D) with heavy blankets.

Question 70

Kate is worried because her son is not toilet-trained by his second birthday. Her older daughter had been toilet-trained at 2. What might explain the difference?

A) first children potty-train sooner
B) girls toilet train sooner
C) Kate's anxiety may be making her son resistant
D) her son may have other motor delays

Question 71

By 30 months, what percentage of children are toilet-trained?

A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 80%
D) 98%

Question 72

Cross-cultural research in toilet-training indicates:

A) that the timing of training success is primarily a matter of physical maturity.
B) that the timing of training success is partly a matter of cultural beliefs.
C) that American parents use toilet-training techniques that are too intense.
D) that American parents are too flexible about toilet-training.

Question 73

What does the difference in smiling rates between infants who are born premature and infants born on time tell us about the roots of the earliest smiles?

A) the first smiles are prompted by normal social relationships
B) beginning smiles requires advanced cognitive development
C) first smiles are controlled by older portions of the brain
D) first smiles require advanced motor control

Question 74

A condition in which infants who are otherwise normal show excessive crying, is known as:

A) croup.
B) colic.
C) impetigo.
D) difficult temperament.

Question 75

Every day, 2-month-old Evan starts to fuss in the mid-afternoon, and by suppertime he is inconsolable. He pulls his knees close into his body and his parents are unable to comfort him. Evan probably has:

A) croup.
B) colic.
C) impetigo.
D) a difficult temperament.

Question 76

Two-month-old Peter has colic. What can his doctor tell his worried and exhausted parents?

A) a change in his formula may help his stomach pain
B) responding calmly now will negate his increased risk of behavior problems
C) nobody knows what causes colic but it will be over in about a month
D) if they calm down, so will he

Question 77

One of the most common illnesses in infancy is ear infections, also known as:

A) croup.
B) pertussis.
C) otis media.
D) roseola.

Question 78

Which statement is not true about childhood vaccinations?

A) most should be given by the end of the second year
B) many children have mild side effects of vaccinations
C) vaccinations have greatly reduced the rates of childhood diseases worldwide
D) vaccinations are associated with increased rates of colic

Question 79

In 1996, there were 75,000 cases of polio in India. After a nationwide immunization campaign, the rate in
2006 fell to:

A) below 10,000.
B) below 1,000.
C) below 100.
D) below 50.

Question 80

Judy's 6-month-old grandson is coming to visit. What is the best way for him to ride in her car?

A) rear-facing child seat in the front seat
B) rear-facing child seat in the back seat
C) front-facing child seat in the front seat
D) front-facing child seat in the back seat