Deck 1: Forensic Nursing Evidence Based Principles and Practice

Question 1

A distinct feature of forensic nursing practice is the nurses' knowledge and skill in navigating intersections of legal and social systems with

A) political systems.
B) economic systems.
C) ecological systems.
D) health-care systems.

Answer 1

health-care systems.

Question 2

The International Association of Forensic Nurses adopted the definition of forensic nursing as a practice of nursing globally when

A) health and illness intersect.
B) health and legal systems intersect.
C) disaster and health intersect.
D) violence and law intersect.

Answer 2

health and legal systems intersect.

Question 3

Nursing's Social Policy Statement defines nursing's obligations to society and includes six critical elements of nursing-provision of a caring relationship, attention to human experiences and responses to health and illness, integration of objective data with the patient's subjective experience, application of scientific knowledge, advancement of professional knowledge, and the promotion of

A) health.
B) quality of life.
C) social justice.
D) well-being.

Answer 3

social justice.

Question 4

The distinctive feature of forensic nursing practice is the nurses' knowledge and skill in navigating intersections of legal and social systems with

A) political systems.
B) economic systems.
C) ecological systems.
D) health-care systems.

Question 5

Well-designed forensic nursing research, once it has been published and disseminated, has the potential to become a practice standard, as demonstrated in McFarlane, Groff, O'Brien, and Watson (2006). This randomized clinical trial concluded that simple abuse assessment and the offer of referrals have the potential to

A) interrupt and prevent recurrence of intimate partner violence.
B) escalate and magnify recurrence of intimate partner violence.
C) protect and insulate the survivor of the intimate partner violence.
D) reunite the abused and the abuser in a working relationship.

Question 6

According to the American Nurses Association and the International Association of Forensic Nurses (2009), basic forensic nursing is a

A) generalist practice.
B) specialist practice.
C) mixed practice.
D) legal practice.

Question 7

What is a legal reform theory that considers how the well-being of those in the legal system is impacted by legal actions, rules, and procedures?

A) General Systems
B) Therapeutic Intervention
C) Therapeutic Jurisprudence
D) Complexity Theory

Question 8

To formulate an answerable clinical question, Melnyk and Fineout-Overholt (2005) suggest the widely used standard PICOT format-Population/Patient, Intervention of Interest, Comparison intervention or group, Outcome, and

A) Test.
B) Theory.
C) Therapy.
D) Time.

Question 9

The entire process of implementing research into practice is referred to as

A) synergy science.
B) complexity science.
C) forensic science.
D) translation science.

Question 10

An intentional tort accomplished by offensive touching of another without consent is a/an

A) assault.
B) false imprisonment.
C) intentional infliction of emotional distress.
D) battery.

Question 11

A tort is a wrongful or crooked act that injures another classified three ways. The tort that requires that the person committing the act has the requisite knowledge and will to commit the wrong is a/an

A) Unintentional tort.
B) Quasi-intentional tort.
C) Malpractice tort.
D) Intentional tort.

Question 12

At a higher level of articulation, violation of the ethical principle of autonomy is a violation of the rights to

A) free speech.
B) being human.
C) fiduciary duties.
D) association.

Question 13

In understanding sociocultural factors, bias and discrimination are uncomfortable subjects to many because they give rise to difficult conversations and

A) clarity and understanding.
B) transparency and veracity.
C) truthfulness.
D) different responses.

Question 14

Internalized responsibility is

A) accountability.
B) veracity.
C) justice.
D) authority.

Question 15

The duty of the forensic nurse is to protect the client from harm, which is enunciated by the ethical principle of nonmalfeasance. The duty to provide service for the good of the client is enunciated in the ethical principle of

A) beneficence.
B) malfeasance.
C) consequentialism.
D) nonconsequentialism.

Question 16

The ethical principle that demands that the FN is fair in all his or her interactions and communications making certain that policies and procedures are consistently and equitably applied without selective dispensation is

A) fidelity.
B) justice.
C) veracity.
D) autonomy.

Question 17

Laws are derived from four major sources on the national level in the United States and in several states and territories These are Common law, Administrative law, Legislative Law, and

A) treatises.
B) policies.
C) regulations.
D) constitutional law.

Question 18

An unintentional wrongdoing as the failure to meet a standard of care, as any reasonably prudent health-care provider would do, possessing similar knowledge and skills under comparable circumstances, is

A) battery.
B) assault.
C) negligence.
D) kidnapping.

Question 19

In a professional negligence case the burden of proof is

A) clear and convincing.
B) preponderance of the evidence.
C) beyond all reasonable doubts.
D) beyond a reasonable doubt.

Question 20

Several purposes or objectives of crime include punishment. The purpose that exacts equal "pay back" as in the words "an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth, an arm for an arm, a life for a life" is

A) incapacitation.
B) retribution.
C) restitution.
D) deterrence.

Question 21

Two general bodies of evidence are present in all potential litigation-(1) fact evidence and (2) _________________.

A) real evidence.
B) tested evidence.
C) expert opinion evidence.
D) clear and convincing evidence.

Question 22

In a civil case, the litigant who files the Complaint to commence a lawsuit is the

A) plaintiff.
B) defendant.
C) witness.
D) consultant.

Question 23

In a jury trial, the Judge is the trier of the law while the jury is the trier of

A) proof.
B) fact.
C) truth.
D) evidence

Question 24

Bias is a common human characteristic and sometimes colors jury verdicts. In jury selection, this human characteristic is tempered by

A) jury nullification.
B) peremptory challenge.
C) jury randomization.
D) jury dismissal.

Question 25

The goal of all lawsuits is to

A) resolve disputes.
B) punish the wrongdoer.
C) unite families.
D) provide work for attorneys.

Question 26

Advanced technology is creating a dependence on simulation as a/an

A) enculturation into nursing and health-care education.
B) replacement for clinical experience.
C) self-paced learning module.
D) teaching and learning strategy.

Question 27

Low-fidelity simulation is

A) connected.
B) immersive.
C) integrated.
D) static.

Question 28

Alternative light source (ALS) should be used to detect

A) semen.
B) gonorrhea.
C) human papilloma virus.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.

Question 29

Simulation for the forensic nurse should not be conducted

A) in a team.
B) without videotaping.
C) alone or with a partner.
D) in a classroom.

Question 30

Debriefing as a component of simulation should be conducted

A) prior to the scenario.
B) during the scenario.
C) after the scenario is completed.
D) one week after the simulation has been completed.

Question 31

Forensic nursing data from the electronic health record should not be used as

A) a source of evidence for prosecution.
B) press release material.
C) quality improvement evaluation information.
D) formal research datasets.

Question 32

The Omaha System provides standardized terms for client problems, practitioner interventions, and problem-specific client outcomes. Some Omaha System problems that are particularly applicable in forensic nursing are

A) abuse, skin, communicable/infectious condition.
B) speech and language, vision, hearing.
C) respiration and circulation.
D) personal care, medication regimen.

Question 33

Electronic forensic medical record data do not provide information on the

A) type and location of provider.
B) race/ethnicity of victims.
C) type of assault.
D) narrative notes of the encounter.

Question 34

Informatics solutions specifically for forensic nursing do not include

A) generating data.
B) warehousing data.
C) data to attorneys and law enforcement.
D) vital statistics data.

Question 35

Forensic nurses cannot use data to

A) reduce assault through law enforcement and crime prevention efforts.
B) improve services for assault victims through research.
C) identify perpetrators.
D) expand access to care for assault victims through health systems policy.

Question 36

Students in the health professions are beginning to request educational content on forensic health issues because

A) the health-care systems are complex environments.
B) institutional, organizational guidelines require standard of care for forensic patients.
C) basic health professional education does not include adequate content.
D) All of the above.

Question 37

Competency-based education for health-care professionals is

A) the requirement in all health-care education.
B) makes it easier for students to learn forensic management.
C) advised by the Institute of Medicine reports.
D) none of the above.

Question 38

Evidence-based forensic education

A) is easy to implement.
B) integrates professional wisdom with best research available on education.
C) leaves the criteria of competency-based education up to the faculty.
D) does not involve learner need, since forensic education is required by law.

Question 39

Educational concepts should be found in

A) mission of the educational institution.
B) would not address ethnicity or multiculturalism.
C) health-care definitions.
D) forensic educational syllabus.

Question 40

The financial cost of violence drains the________________ system.

A) criminal justice
B) health-care
C) children protective services
D) All of the above systems.

Question 41

Research reports on violence prevention strategies

A) include weapon control.
B) have existing well-evaluated outcomes.
C) do not need further interagency coordination.
D) All of the above.

Question 42

Which of the following is true regarding the current status of the definition of violence?

A) The definition is universally shared.
B) The definition is not universally shared.
C) The clear definition will constrain clinical research.
D) None of the above.

Question 43

A definition of violence is characterized by

A) intent to cause harm.
B) contextual issues.
C) None of the above.
D) Both of the above.

Question 44

Primary prevention is action taken to prevent development of a disease or injury. Which one of the following is true?

A) Health promotion activities are unrelated to the primary stage of prevention.
B) Health promotion is coordinated community action aimed at legislative changes.
C) Primary care providers do only primary prevention actions.
D) Primary prevention is the initial identification and treatment of victims.

Question 45

When caring for a patient in the midst of an intimate violent relationship, which one of the following is true?

A) Counseling the patient about the potential lethal outcome could save her life.
B) In the event of separation, the abused partner's life may be in danger.
C) The partner's beliefs of entitlement and ownership are destroyed and will lead to seeking a partner they can more easily control.
D) A and B

Question 46

The intersection of neurobiology and trauma is emerging in the scientific literature. Which of the following is not true?

A) Hormonal chemical levels change and disrupt sanity.
B) Exposure to violence can affect the developing brain of a young child.
C) Adverse events in childhood increase health risks for increased morbidity and mortality.
D) As abused persons grow older, they may be unable to meet the needs of their children.

Question 47

Elder abuse is defined as

A) failure of a responsible person to provide for basic needs of the elder person.
B) intentional injury, assault, or threat with a weapon.
C) psychological trauma and humiliation following a threat or controlling behavior.
D) all of the above.

Question 48

There are several distinctive differences in intimate partner violence against males.

A) Approximately 10% of males report abuse in their lifetime.
B) Over 2.7 million males report the experience of rape in their lifetime.
C) Most male victimization is of male prostitutes in their teens.
D) Most male victims of trauma are not as psychologically traumatized, so it is not studied as much.

Question 49

The age group at highest risk for rape and sexual assault is

A) children 8 to 12 years of age.
B) early adolescents 13 to 16 years of age.
C) older adolescents 18 to 24 years of age.
D) young adults 24 to 30 years of age.

Question 50

The incidence of post-traumatic stress disorder following sexual assault is

A) lower than domestic violence.
B) higher than other traumas for both males and females.
C) easily cured with cognitive therapy.
D) worse with children

Question 51

Evidence-based practice often cites randomized control trials (RCT) as the highest level of evidence. The use of RCT research

A) may not be best for understanding nursing care with victims of violence.
B) incorporates caring, spirituality, and ethics.
C) can be defined as a systematic review of the literature,
D) is always the best evaluation of nursing outcomes.

Question 52

As with other hierarchies of scientific evidence, Chapter 9 depicts

A) qualitative research as the strongest evidence, and observations as the lowest level.
B) case studies as the lowest and systematic syntheses as the highest level of evidence.
C) individual summaries as the lowest level and consensus expert opinions as the best evidence.
D) RCT as best evidence and qualitative interview as the lowest level of evidence.

Question 53

The initials SANE after a nurses name signify that the nurse

A) has met certification requirements of a certifying body for performing sexual assault examinations.
B) can examine adults and children in performance of a forensic nursing position.
C) does not have a psychiatric mental illness.
D) is required by law to perform forensic examinations on patients.

Question 54

Reporting injury is

A) the most effective evidence presented in court to convict the accused.
B) the least effective evidence presented in court to convict the accused.
C) not relevant in most cases evaluated and reported in Canadian and American studies.
D) more related to prosecution if injuries were severe or the accused was a stranger.

Question 55

Which one of the following statements regarding definitions is true?

A) Rape, sexual assault, and sexual abuse are defined the same across North America.
B) Rape, sexual assault, and sexual abuse can be used interchangeably with law enforcement agencies.
C) Terms such as rape, sexual assault, and sexual abuse have to be defined differently to allow for penetration crimes, vs unwanted sexual contact of all types with males and females.
D) Having all-inclusive terms like rape, sexual assault, and sexual abuse has led to the accuracy and high percentage of people reporting these crimes to police.

Question 56

Among different racial and ethnic groups, _____________ report more sexual assault and violence-related medical visits.

A) Native American and black groups
B) Black and Caucasian groups
C) Native American and native Canadian groups
D) Hispanic and Afro-Caribbean groups

Question 57

Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding the collection of evidence with an unconscious patient?

A) It violates client-informed decision-making in Canadian Nurses' code of ethics.
B) Laws differ across the U.S.
C) It is supported by American Nurses' Code of Ethics, which respects patient self-determination.
D) It must be done in case they are still unconscious for more than 72 hours.

Question 58

Psychological first aid (PFA) for crisis intervention following a trauma

A) can only be done by mental health professionals.
B) consists of a set of core actions.
C) can be easily learned by families and health professionals.
D) is proven by research to be as effective as cognitive behavioral therapy.

Question 59

There are eight core actions included in psychological first aid (PFA). For most acute crises, health professionals must at the very least do which one of the following sets of action?

A) Compassionately engage, provide practical assistance, and refer for help.
B) Define the problem, provide practical assistance, and refer for help.
C) Define the problem, ensure safety, and provide support.
D) Define the problem, provide information on coping and stress, and refer for help.

Question 60

What does "reconnecting the suicidal patient with humanity" mean, according to Cutcliffe's theoretical premise for nursing care with the suicidal patient?

A) A family meeting with a Bowen Family Therapist who specializes in reconnecting the suicidal patient back into the family system
B) A discharge planning process whereby the patient actively participates in choosing his/her community residence and employment opportunities
C) A three-stage process for nursing interventions with empathetic, nonbiased care to guide the suicidal patient toward attaining power over his/her suicidality with the confidence to live again
D) None of the above

Question 61

Protective factors that can help decrease the risk of suicide may include

A) a stable social support system and the ability to use coping skills.
B) a sense of hopefulness and spiritual inclinations.
C) A only.
D) A and B.

Question 62

An experienced forensic nurse may have difficulty assessing suicide and the range of self-injurious behaviors. Nursing assessment must incorporate techniques to

A) circumvent the intention of behaviors.
B) include close collaboration with caretakers, family, and friends.
C) assess the patient only, since suicide is such a personal issue.
D) A and B.

Question 63

Suicide assessment includes

A) a comprehensive and systematic approach.
B) information that may indicate individual risks factors.
C) the need only to follow a clinical interview format.
D) A and B.

Question 64

Forensic health care indicates that a combination of legal and health-care issues must be addressed in patient management. In relation to treatment of suicidal patients, which one of the following statements is true?

A) A nurse may voluntarily elect not to report suspected intention of harm due to HIPAA privacy laws.
B) A decision to treat a patient against his/her will requires a legal process that assures patient protection.
C) The patient may petition the court for legal treatment.
D) Federal laws mandate commitment and treatment of a dangerous patient.

Question 65

Literature on treatment of suicidal patients reveals an action-interaction strategy (Sun and colleagues) with an identified core of

A) holistic assessments and patient protection.
B) therapeutic relationship vested in safe, compassionate care.
C) provision of basic mental and physical care.
D) hope-inspiring advanced healing care.

Question 66

Intervention planning for the mental health patient should include

A) educating the patient about coping skills and cognitive style.
B) family and friends
C) limited communication with entire health-care team.
D) A and B.

Question 67

Which one of the following statements is true, given that around 65% to 85% of persons communicate about their suicide prior to their attempts.

A) Acute interventions are the most critical first step in the treatment continuum.
B) Determination of the best setting for care is the most important therapeutic issue.
C) Talking about suicide can be the most important therapeutic issue.
D) Talking about suicide puts the idea in the person's head.

Question 68

Extensive investigation may be required in a trauma or unnatural death, based on

A) circumstances of death and mechanism of injury.
B) variations of medical examiner or coroner system.
C) patient identification and insurance.
D) Is not allowed by the nurse investigator.

Question 69

Which of the following options is an example of Cause of Death (COD)?

A) Eye witness accounts
B) Homicide
C) Suicide
D) Gunshot wound

Question 70

Which one of the following is true regarding the forensic post-mortem or autopsy examination?

A) It is performed on all deceased persons.
B) Can only be performed by the pathologist.
C) Authority to perform is given by the family.
D) Authority to perform is given by the state.

Question 71

Nursing skills that may enhance outcomes in death investigation role include

A) nursing diagnoses and treatment plans.
B) communication skills and critical thinking.
C) knowledge of surgery techniques.
D) nursing assessment knowledge.

Question 72

Which one of the following is a manner of death (MOD) that is consistent with the cause of death (COD)?

A) COD: Cocaine toxicity; MOD: Overdose
B) COD: Gunshot wound to the abdomen; MOD: Exsanguination
C) COD: Hanging; MOD: Suicide
D) COD: Exsanguination; MOD: Wrongful medication dosage

Question 73

In the coroner system, the following is TRUE.

A) Autopsies are done by the coroner.
B) The coroner is always elected.
C) The coroner is a physician but not forensically trained.
D) It is the system used in more than half of the states.

Question 74

Deaths that are reportable to the coroner/medical examiner include

A) inmates in public institutions.
B) undiagnosed cancer patients.
C) heart attacks.
D) all deaths in an ambulance.

Question 75

Research has shown that there is a significant effect on the actions of jury members when they are exposed to stories about physical evidence and its potential to

A) include or exclude a suspect.
B) provide evidence about the witness.
C) translate the judge's rulings.
D) make the attorney look informed.

Question 76

In the early 20^th century a French criminologist held that anytime two objects come in contact with each other there is a mutual exchange of materials which became the basis of modern scientific investigation in criminal and civil cases known as

A) the principle of mutual exchange .
B) Locard's principle of exchange.
C) Edmond's principle of exchange.
D) the principle of mutual material exchange.

Question 77

When the appropriate evidence is identified, collected, and properly maintained, it can have great value in the course of an investigation. Information that can be gained from evidence includes identification of the elements of an incident; identification of a perpetrator or other actor; exclusion of an individual as the source of the evidence; prove or disprove witness or party statements; association of objects or persons; and provision of additional

A) vigorous media debate.
B) speculation from witnesses.
C) information or "investigative" leads.
D) theory of the elements of the crime.

Question 78

Most forensic psychiatric mental-health nurses work with

A) criminal offenders.
B) victims of violent crimes.
C) civil cases.
D) defense attorneys.

Question 79

Forensic psychiatric nursing includes all roles/functions, EXCEPT

A) correctional mental health nursing.
B) criminal and civil competence.
C) criminal responsibility.
D) recommendation of criminal charges.

Question 80

When functioning in the forensic role, the nurse adheres to which principle of confidentiality?

A) Adherent
B) Strict
C) Limited
D) None