Deck 17: Immunization and Immune Testing

Question 1

Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes?

A) formaldehyde
B) alcohol
C) synthetic detergents
D) fluorescent dyes
E) alum

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE?

A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms.
B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen.
C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine.
D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen.
E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which of the following statements regarding toxoids is FALSE?

A) They are produced against the toxin of the microorganism rather than the microorganism itself.
B) They provide lifelong immunity.
C) They stimulate antibody immune responses.
D) They have few antigenic determinants.
E) They are chemically or thermally modified.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Killed vaccines work by stimulating

A) an antibody response.
B) phagocytic activity.
C) the cell-mediated immune response.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) lymphocyte proliferation.

Question 5

Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from

A) human serum.
B) animal serum.
C) hybridomas.
D) human B cells in culture.
E) both human and animal serum

Question 6

Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by

A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.
B) genetic manipulation.
C) treatment with formaldehyde.
D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde.
E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.

Question 7

Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against

A) anthrax.
B) human cholera.
C) rabies.
D) influenza.
E) both anthrax and rabies.

Question 8

The discovery of antibodies and the understanding of their actions lead to

A) improved vaccine design.
B) the development of genetically engineered vaccines.
C) improved methods of immunization.
D) the development of passive immunotherapy.
E) the use of the technique known as variolation.

Question 9

The first true vaccine provided immunity to

A) anthrax.
B) cholera.
C) pertussis.
D) rabies.
E) smallpox.

Question 10

Development of new vaccines has slowed in recent decades. This is due to

A) the ineffectiveness of vaccines against disease.
B) the availability of vaccines against nearly all serious diseases.
C) the high cost of development.
D) the high level of risk with immunization.
E) a lack of need with modern medical treatments.

Question 11

The attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine (OVP) is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it

A) is very toxic.
B) does not provide good immunity.
C) can revert to wild-type virulence.
D) can be spread to contacts.
E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence.

Question 12

The polio vaccine currently administered in the U.S., known as IPV, is an example of a(n) ________ vaccine.

A) attenuated
B) whole inactivated
C) subunit
D) toxoid
E) recombinant

Question 13

An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with a lethal dose of ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this?

A) attenuated
B) subunit
C) combination
D) toxoid
E) inactivated whole

Question 14

Large quantities of pure antigen produced using recombinant DNA technology can be used to prepare ________ vaccines.

A) attenuated
B) inactived whole
C) toxoid
D) subunit
E) DNA

Question 15

A person exposed to hepatitis A virus may be treated with an injection of antibody molecules. This type of treatment is

A) immunization.
B) serology.
C) vaccine therapy.
D) passive immunotherapy.
E) adjuvant therapy.

Question 16

Antivenin is a(n)

A) antitoxin used to treat exposure to a venom.
B) antigen produced from a virus.
C) antiserum produced from hybridomas.
D) vaccine made toward the endotoxin of a virus.
E) vaccine produced against the endotoxin of a bacterium.

Question 17

What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases?

A) variolation
B) active immunization by vaccination
C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins
D) immune testing
E) autoimmunization

Question 18

Contact immunity within a population can be produced by ________ vaccines.

A) attenuated
B) DNA
C) inactivated
D) subunit
E) toxoid

Question 19

a person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy represent?

A) active immunization
B) passive immunotherapy
C) viral hemagglutination inhibition
D) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy

Question 20

What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?

A) inactivated whole pathogen
B) attenuated vaccine
C) toxoid vaccine
D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus
E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde

Question 21

Analysis of blood to detect specific antigens or antibodies is known as

A) immunology.
B) hematology.
C) serology.
D) cytology.
E) histology.

Question 22

Which property of antibodies is the basis for complement fixation tests?

A) agglutination
B) opsonization
C) neutralization
D) direct killing
E) complement activation

Question 23

A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent?

A) a direct immunofluoresence test
B) a complement fixation test
C) an immunochromatographic assay
D) an ELISA
E) a neutralization assay

Question 24

Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that

A) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen.
B) antibodies have different molecular weights.
C) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect.
D) the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid.
E) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label.

Question 25

The assay represented in Figure 17.2 is used to

A) detect antigen-specific antibodies in patient serum.
B) detect specific antigen in patient serum.
C) determine the titer of IgM in patient serum.
D) determine the presence of an antibody-modifying enzyme in a patient sample.
E) detect cytopathic effects of viral infection.

Question 26

The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be

A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube.
B) a cloudy solution in the tube.
C) loss of color in the tube.
D) a fluorescent precipitate.
E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.

Question 27

The assay shown in Figure 17.1 is used for what?

A) detecting antibodies against a complex mix of antigens
B) verifying infection with a virus
C) determining the concentration of antibodies
D) detecting neutralizing antibodies
E) blood typing

Question 28

The presence of fungus in patient specimens can be detected by the ________ test.

A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) indirect fluorescent antibody
C) hemagglutination
D) complement fixation
E) ELISA

Question 29

Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using a(n) ________ on sputum (lung fluid) samples.

A) direct fluorescent antibody test
B) complement fixation test
C) neutralization test
D) immunochromatographic assay
E) viral hemagglutination test

Question 30

In precipitation tests, maximum precipitation takes place when

A) the amount of the antibody exceeds the amount of the antigen.
B) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody.
C) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions.
D) a toxin is present.
E) a complex solution of many antibodies is used.

Question 31

Serologic tests may be used to detect ________ for diagnosis of disease.

A) the concentration of serum proteins
B) the ability of the patient's antibodies to activate the complement system
C) antigen-specific antibodies
D) specific epitopes
E) the proportion of plasma in a patient's blood

Question 32

How is an immunofiltration assay different from an ELISA?

A) Test antigens are bound to filters rather than plastic plates.
B) Positive results are the result of precipitate formation.
C) Fluorescent molecules are attached to antigen rather than enzyme.
D) Antibodies are bound to filters rather than plastic plates.
E) They take longer than ELISAs.

Question 33

A hemagglutination test is useful for

A) determining antibody titer.
B) blood typing.
C) determining effectiveness of immunization.
D) detecting presence of a pathogen in patient serum.
E) diagnosing viral infection.

Question 34

Anti-human antibodies (specific for human IgG antibodies) with fluorescent molecules covalently attached are used for

A) direct fluorescent antibody tests.
B) indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
C) direct ELISAs.
D) indirect ELISAs.
E) immunodiffusion tests.

Question 35

Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of antigen-antibody complexes?

A) blood typing
B) immunodiffusion
C) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections
D) ELISA
E) fluorescent antibody tests

Question 36

Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is TRUE?

A) They are not quantitative.
B) They require large amounts of serum.
C) The antibody label is a fluorescent molecule.
D) They can be used to detect antibody or antigen.
E) They involve the use of membrane filters.

Question 37

The concentration (or titer) of antibody to a specific antigen can be determined using a ________ test.

A) hemagglutination
B) precipitation
C) complement fixation
D) agglutination
E) immunochromatographic

Question 38

Which of the following assays is a function of the formation of immune complexes?

A) immunoblot tests
B) ELISAs
C) neutralization tests
D) direct fluorescent antibody tests
E) precipitation tests

Question 39

A new virus is discovered that causes cells to lyse. Which of the following types of assay would be useful for diagnosing infection with this virus?

A) agglutination
B) complement fixation test
C) viral hemagglutination
D) both agglutination and complement fixation tests
E) viral neutralization

Question 40

Which of the following tests does NOT detect an immune response to a virus infection?

A) a viral neutralization test
B) a direct immunofluorescent antibody test
C) a viral hemagglutination test
D) a complement fixation test
E) a direct ELISA

Question 41

Infection with HIV is routinely verified using a(n) ________ assay.

A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) immunodiffusion precipitation
C) viral neutralization
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) immunoblot

Question 42

Passive immunotherapy does not result in immunological memory.

Question 43

Because attenuated live vaccines contain viruses that are less virulent, many booster vaccines must be given to produce an effective immune response.

Question 44

The hepatitis B vaccine is an attenuated vaccine.

Question 45

Rabies virus can be directly detected in brain tissue using a(n) ________ assay.

A) viral neutralization
B) direct fluorescent antibody
C) immunodiffusion precipitation
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) immunoblot

Question 46

Anti-antibodies are used in indirect antibody assays.

Question 47

Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as (vaccination/variolation/immunization).

Question 48

For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus, it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin than against the bacteria.

Question 49

Agglutination tests are used to detect soluble antigens.

Question 50

A(n) ________ assay is used for rapid identification of strep (group A Streptococcus) infections.

A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) immunodiffusion precipitation
C) viral neutralization
D) immunochromatographic
E) immunoblot

Question 51

An advantage of (attenuated/inactivated/subunit) vaccines is that they usually elicit cell-mediated immune responses.

Question 52

Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce an (adjuvant/attenuated/inactivated) form of the virus.

Question 53

Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox.

Question 54

The immunochromatographic assay uses enzyme-linked anti-antibodies.

Question 55

The MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine requires multiple immunizations in the first year because it is composed of whole killed viruses.

Question 56

Infection with the fungus Coccidioides immitis is commonly diagnosed using a(n) ________ assay.

A) precipitation
B) immunoblot
C) direct fluorescent antibody
D) hemagglutination inhibition
E) neutralization

Question 57

Infection with influenzavirus is commonly diagnosed using

A) an immunoblot assay.
B) viral neutralization tests.
C) immunochromatographic assay.
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition test.
E) both immunochromatographic assay and viral hemagglutination inhibition test.

Question 58

Complement fixation is a more sensitive test for the presence of specific antibodies than are agglutination tests.

Question 59

The "dipstick" illustrated in Figure 17.3 is used in a(n) (immunodiffusion/immunochromatographic/ immunofluorescent) assay.

Question 60

When vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity, (adjuvants/ boosters/subunits) must be given to maintain protection.

Question 61

Modern vaccine technology can involve inserting the DNA encoding the pathogen's antigen(s) into a (plasmid/hybridoma/cell) and injecting it into an individual.

Question 62

One way to measure the antibody levels in the blood is by (neutralization/titration/turbidimetry) using agglutination tests.

Question 63

Chemically or thermally modified toxins that are used for vaccination are called (adjuvants/antigens/toxoids).

Question 64

The vaccine to prevent cervical cancer is a(n) (attenuated/recombinant/toxoid) vaccine.

Question 65

Antisera directed against toxins are known as (antibodies/antitoxins/anti-antibodies).

Question 66

Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins).

Question 67

A technician places a serum sample in a well in an agar plate and a solution of antigens in a second well in the plate. The technician has set up a(n) (agglutination/immunodiffusion/immunoblot) assay.

Question 68

An (ELISA/immunofiltration/immunoblot) assay uses antibodies bound on the surface of a membrane filter to detect antigens.

Question 69

How has modern technology helped to produce new types of vaccines?

Question 70

A researcher uses genetic recombination techniques to remove a virulence gene from a pathogen, producing a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/subunit/toxoid) vaccine.

Question 71

Discuss the concept of herd immunity and its importance in creating and maintaining a healthy population.

Question 72

Discuss the similarities and differences between immunodiffusion and immunochromatographic assays.

Question 73

Compare and contrast viral neutralization and viral hemagglutination tests.

Question 74

Two types of vaccines for polio have been developed, an inactivated whole (IPV ) and a live attenuated (OPV ) vaccine. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of the two polio vaccines.

Question 75

Fluorescent antibody, ELISA, and immunoblotting tests involve the use of (hybridoma/labeled/unlabeled) antibodies.