Deck 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization

Question 1

Properties of effective antigens include all the following, except

A) foreign to the immune system.
B) molecular complexity.
C) large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000.
D) large polymers made up of identical repeating subunits.
E) cells or large, complex molecules.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following, except

A) two identical heavy polypeptide chains.
B) two identical light polypeptide chains.
C) disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.
D) four antigen binding sites.
E) a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Antigen presenting cells

A) include dendritic cells.
B) include macrophages.
C) engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic.
D) hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called

A) antibodies.
B) sensitized T-cells.
C) activated macrophages.
D) pla cells.
E) Bursa cells.

Question 5

T-cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires

A) typically a protein antigen.
B) binding of T-cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell.
C) binding of T-cell to a site on the antigen.
D) interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 6

The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/ an

A) epitope.
B) hapten.
C) antigen binding site.
D) variable region.

Question 7

Pla cells

A) secrete antibodies.
B) function in allergic reactions.
C) directly destroy target cells.
D) suppress immune reactions.
E) activate B-cells and other T-cells.

Question 8

The bone marrow is where

A) immune responses to antigen occur.
B) blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
C) antigen is filtered from the blood.
D) antigen is filtered from tissue fluid.
E) T-lymphocytes complete maturation.

Question 9

Class I MHC genes code for

A) certain secreted complement components.
B) markers that display unique characteristics of self.
C) all HLA antigens.
D) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 10

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions

A) are the result of genetic expression.
B) function in recognition of self molecules.
C) participate in communication with other cells of the system.
D) aid in cellular development.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 11

Lymphocytes

A) possess MHC antigens for recognizing self.
B) have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens.
C) gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self.
D) develop into clones of B and T-cells with extreme variations of specificity.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 12

Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin?

A) It determines the antibody's distribution in the body.
B) It forms the antigen binding sites.
C) It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells.
D) It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement.
E) It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs.

Question 13

Lymphocyte maturation involves

A) hormonal signals that initiate development.
B) B-cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
C) T-cells maturing in the thymus.
D) release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 14

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?

A) neutralization
B) opsonization
C) complement fixation
D) agglutination
E) anamnestic response

Question 15

Class II MHC genes code for

A) certain secreted complement components.
B) self receptors recognized by natural killer cells.
C) all HLA antigens.
D) receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 16

Superantigens are

A) body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.
B) cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.
C) bacterial toxins that activate T-cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
D) those that evoke allergic reactions.

Question 17

The major histocompatability complex is

A) a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system.
B) a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.
C) also known as the complement system.
D) located in the thymus gland.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 18

Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed

A) antigenic determinants.
B) haptens.
C) antigen binding sites.
D) variable regions.

Question 19

Helper T-cells

A) secrete antibodies.
B) function in allergic reactions.
C) directly destroy target cells.
D) suppress immune reactions.
E) activate B-cells and other T-cells.

Question 20

The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the

A) variable region.
B) joining region.
C) constant region.
D) light region.
E) hinge region.

Question 21

The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is

A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG
E) IgM.

Question 22

In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is

A) IgD.
B) IgE.
C) IgG.
D) IgM.
E) IgA.

Question 23

In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is

A) IgD.
B) IgE.
C) IgG.
D) IgM.
E) IgA.

Question 24

The most significant cells in graft rejection are

A) helper T-cells.
B) suppressor T-cells.
C) cytotoxic T-cells.
D) B-cells.
E) natural killer NK) cells.

Question 25

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?

A) neutralization
B) opsonization
C) complement fixation
D) agglutination
E) anamnestic response

Question 26

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is

A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.

Question 27

When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly

A) IgM.
B) IgA.
C) IgD.
D) IgE.
E) IgG.

Question 28

Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients?

A) cytotoxic T-cells
B) helper T-cells
C) B-cells
D) pla cells
E) suppressor T-cells

Question 29

An example of artificial active immunity would be

A) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

Question 30

Monoclonal antibodies

A) originate from a single B-cell clone.
B) have a single specificity for antigen.
C) are secreted by hybridomas.
D) are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 31

An example of natural passive immunity would be

A) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

Question 32

Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?

A) helper T-cells
B) suppressor T-cells
C) cytotoxic T-cells
D) delayed hypersensitivity T-cells
E) natural killer NK) cells

Question 33

Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?

A) IgM only
B) IgG only
C) IgD only
D) IgM and IgG
E) IgE and IgA

Question 34

Cytotoxic T-cells

A) stimulate B-cell proliferation.
B) lack specificity for a target cell.
C) secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
D) secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T-cells.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 35

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is

A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.

Question 36

An example of artificial passive immunity would be

A) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

Question 37

Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?

A) neutralization
B) opsonization
C) complement fixation
D) agglutination
E) anamnestic response

Question 38

All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except

A) it has 10 antigen binding sites.
B) it contains a central J chain.
C) it is the first class synthesized by a pla cell.
D) it can fix complement.
E) it is a dimer.

Question 39

The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B-cells is/are

A) IgM only.
B) IgG only.
C) IgD only.
D) IgM and IgG.
E) IgE and IgA.

Question 40

Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?

A) neutralization
B) opsonization
C) complement fixation
D) agglutination
E) anamnestic response

Question 41

High titers of specific antibodies are components of

A) specific immune globulin SIG).
B) gamma globulin.
C) immune serum globulin ISG).
D) attenuated vaccines.
E) toxoids.

Question 42

Toxoids

A) contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B) are always genetically engineered.
C) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D) confer passive immunity.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 43

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?

A) adjuvant
B) booster
C) antibodies to toxin
D) gamma globulin
E) "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

Question 44

Cody is 4 months old and is given a DTaP injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity will develop as a result of this?

A) natural active immunity
B) artificial passive immunity
C) natural passive immunity
D) artificial active immunity

Question 45

Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for

A) asthma.
B) crohn's disease.
C) breast cancer.
D) respiratory syncytial virus.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 46

The process of clonal deletion is designed to

A) destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.
B) slow down the primary immune response to an antigen.
C) slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen.
D) limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient.
E) slow down the immune system in the elderly.

Question 47

Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive?

A) natural active immunity
B) artificial passive immunity
C) natural passive immunity
D) artificial active immunity

Question 48

Immunotherapy is the

A) use of antitoxins.
B) use of immune serum globulin.
C) conferring of passive immunity.
D) administering of preformed antibodies.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 49

Live, attenuated vaccines

A) include the Sabin polio vaccine.
B) include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine MMR).
C) contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
D) require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 50

Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by

A) removal of virulence genes from the microbe.
B) treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation.
C) passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture.
D) long-term subculturing of the microbe.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 51

Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines

A) contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B) are always genetically engineered.
C) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D) confer passive immunity.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 52

Variolation involved using

A) dried, ground smallpox scabs.
B) a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus.
C) preparations of human cowpox lesions.
D) antibodies to the smallpox virus.

Question 53

All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except

A) a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response.
B) a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response.
C) a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response.
D) it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.
E) it is also known as the anamnestic response.

Question 54

Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make

A) adjuvant.
B) booster.
C) antibodies to toxin.
D) gamma globulin.
E) "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine.

Question 55

The DTaP immunization

A) contains diphtheria toxoid.
B) is administered in childhood.
C) contains tetanus toxoid.
D) contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 56

Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens?

A) IgD
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
E) IgA

Question 57

Edward Jenner's work involved

A) inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
B) development of passive immunotherapy.
C) development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
D) immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 58

Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients?

A) killed, inactivated vaccines
B) attenuated vaccines
C) toxoids
D) immune serums
E) subunit vaccines

Question 59

Antitoxins

A) contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
B) use vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins.
C) contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin.
D) include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus.
E) contain attenuated organisms.

Question 60

Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following except

A) diphtheria.
B) botulism.
C) snake bites.
D) chickenpox.
E) spider bites.

Question 61

Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response?

A) lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B-cells
B) lymphocyte development, challenge of B-cells, antibody production, presentation of antigens
C) lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B-cell challenge, antibody production
D) antibody production, lymphocyte production, B-cell challenge, presentation of antigens
E) presentation of antigens, B-cell challenge, antibody production, lymphocyte development

Question 62

Alloantigens are the basis for an individual's blood group and MHC profile.

Question 63

Antibody molecules can act as enzyme to directly destroy an antigen.

Question 64

All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

A) they confer longer lasting protection.
B) they produce infection but not disease.
C) they can mutate back to a virulent strain.
D) they require fewer boosters.
E) they require smaller doses.

Question 65

A disadvantage of using an attenuated live microbe in a vaccine is that it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain.

Question 66

After secreting antibodies during an immune response, pla cells then differentiate into memory cells.

Question 67

Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity.

Question 68

Activation of B-cells occurs when antigen bonds to B-cell surface immunoglobulin receptors.

Question 69

The differences in the classes of immunoglobulins are due primarily to variations in the Fc fragment.

Question 70

Which kind of T-cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy viral infected cells, and cancer cells?

A) T_C
B) T_H
C) CD4
D) MHC

Question 71

Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.

Question 72

Which cells'direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunity?

A) T-cells
B) B-cells
C) bacterial cells
D) viral components
E) neutrophils

Question 73

All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

A) they require smaller doses.
B) they require fewer boosters.
C) they confer longer lasting protection.
D) they can be transmitted to other people.
E) they produce infection but not disease.

Question 74

The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies.

Question 75

Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations?

A) autism
B) diabetes
C) asthma
D) All of these choices are correct.

Question 76

Autoantigens are types of self-antigens that initiate an autoimmune response that can cause damage to host tissue.

Question 77

Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except

A) malaria.
B) botulism.
C) cholera.
D) yellow fever.
E) rabies.

Question 78

Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them.

Question 79

All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except

A) it should have a relatively long shelf life.
B) it should stimulate only the antibody B-cell) response.
C) it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen.
D) it should not require numerous boosters.
E) it should be easy to administer.

Question 80

Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.